Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions
Time : 3 hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
- The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are 37 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C – contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
- Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are Case Based Questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is Map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
- Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based questions.
Section – A
MCQs (1 x 20 = 20)
Question 1.
Identify the correct option that describes the act given below. [1]
(i) The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
(ii) It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
(iii) It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.
Options:
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Vernacular Press Act
(c) Government of India Act
(d) Inland Emigration Act
Answer:
(a) Rowlatt Act
Question 2.
Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates to 11th century? [1]
(a) Delhi
(b) Bhopal
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolhapur
Answer:
(b) Bhopal
Question 3.
Read the data given below and answer the question.
Educational Achievement of Rural Population of Uttar Pradesh.
Category | Males | Females |
Literacy rate for rural population | 76% | 54% |
Literacy rate for rural children in age group 10-14 years | 90% | 90% |
Percentage of rural children aged 10-14 attending school | 85% | 82% |
As per the data given above who has the least percentage of literacy rate in rural population?
(a) Male
(b) Children
(c) Male and Female
(d) Female
Answer:
(d) Female
Question 4.
Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the threats posed by on the tiger population and biodiversity? [1]
(i) Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife
(ii) Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area
(iii) Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
(iii) Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests
Options:
(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
(b) Statement (ii), (iii) & (iv) are correct.
(c) Statement (ii) is correct.
(d) Statements (i), (iii), & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(d) Statements (i), (iii), & (iv) are correct.
Question 5.
When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, was chosen as its headquarters. [1]
(a) Brussels
(b) Paris
(c) London
(d) Zurich
Answer:
(a) Brussels
Question 6.
Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between Majoritarianism and Power sharing? [1]
(a) Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power among different groups.
(b) Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for consensus building, while Power sharing emphasizes the exclusion of minority groups.
(c) Majoritarianism emphasizes the importance of accommodating minority interests, while Power sharing emphasizes the need for majority rule.
(d) Majoritananism emphasizes the need for peaceful resolution of conflicts, while Power sharing emphasizes the use of force to impose the majority’s will.
Answer:
(a) Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community, while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power among different groups.
Question 7.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Democracies are based on political equality. [1]
Reason (R): All individuals have equal say in electing representatives.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question 8.
Rahul has a sack of cotton but he is in need of wheat and Anush has a sack of wheat and is in need of cotton, under this situation both will be able to exchange their goods. In case of absence of such coincidence of wants, they may not exchange their goods. Which one of the following would be the best option that describes the mutual exchange of goods and eliminates the exchange of goods? [1]
Options:
(a) Double coincidence of want, Exchanging commodity for commodity.
(b) Double Coincidence of want, Credit on Commodity.
(c) Double coincidence of wants, Loan on commodity.
(d) Double coincidence of wants, Money
Answer:
(d) Double coincidence of wants, Monec
Question 9.
You are a citizen of a country that has a democratic form of government. You want to ensure that the system of power-sharing in your country is effective and that no one branch of government has absolute power. Which of the following measures would best meet this goal? [1]
(a) All power is concentrated in the hands of the legislature only.
(b) Power is divided between the central government and the states or provinces, with each level having its own sphere of influence.
(c) Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
(d) Power is shared among different levels of government, such as the national, regional, and local governments, with each level having some degree of autonomy.
Answer:
(c) Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
Question 10.
Identify the painting from the options given below. [1]
(a) Frankfurt Parliament
(b) Reichstag
(c) Duma
(d) The House of Parliament
Answer:
(a) Frankfurt Parliament
Question 11.
Evaluate the impacts of opening foreign trade on the global economy by identifying the appropriate statements among the following options: [1]
(i) The choice of goods in the markets increases.
(ii) Producers from two countries closely compete against each other despite the distance between their locations.
(iii) Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
(iv) The quality of the product is always good.
Options:
(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are appropriate.
(b) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are appropriate.
(c) All the statements are appropriate.
(d) Only statement (iv) is appropriate.
Answer:
(b) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are appropriate.
Question 12.
Choose the correct option to complete the statement.
If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the process of decision, it is …………………… .[1]
(a) an accountable government
(b) a responsible government
(c) a transparent government
(d) a stable government.
Answer:
(a) an accountable government
Question 13.
Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that shaped the Non cooperation movement. [1]
(i) General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh.
(ii) “Forced recruitment” carried out by the British government and the economic hardships faced by the people during the First World War.
(iii) The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the Khilafat movement.
(iv) Gandhiji launched a nationwide satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act.
Options:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer:
All the given options in this question are incorrect. The correct option should be – (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Explanation: The correct sequential order for the events that shaped the Non-Cooperation Movement is as follows:
(ii) “Forced recruitment” carried out by the British government and the economic hardships faced by the people during the First World War. (1914-1918)
(iv) Gandhiji launched a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act. (6 April 1919)
(i) General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh. (13 April 1919)
(iii) The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the Khilafat Movement. (January 1921)
Question 14.
If there is a disruption by transporters and lorries refuse to transport vegetables, milk, etc. From rural areas to urban areas, food will become scarce in urban areas, whereas farmers will be unable to sell their products. Which of the following sectors will be affected due to this situation stated above? [1]
(a) Primary and Secondary
(b) Secondary and Tertiary
(c) Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
(d) Tertiary and Primary
Answer:
(c) Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
Question 15.
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer: [1]
Statement I: Western printing techniques and mechanical press were imported in the late 19th Century as Western powers established their outposts in China.
Statement II: Beijing became the hub of the new print culture, catering to Western-style schools.
(a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
(c) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect.
(d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
Question 16.
“M” gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing cotton. Which of the following clues provided by “M” would be most useful in identifying the ideal type of soil? [1]
Clues:
(i) It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
(ii) It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
(iii) It is rich in kankur and bhangar nodules.
(iv) It is a well-drained loamy soil.
(a) Clue (i)
(b) Clue (i) and (iii)
(c) Clue (i) and (ii)
(d) Clue (iv)
Answer:
(a) Clue (i)
Question 17.
Choose the right option to fill in the blank. [1]
The emergence of …………………………….. is directly connected to the rise of political parties.
(a) Monitory democracies
(b) Direct democracies
(c) Representative democracies
(d) Constitutional democracies
Answer:
(c) Representative democracies
Question 18.
The process of integration between different countries is called as ……………………. . [1]
(a) Privatization
(b) Globalization
(c) Liberalization
(d) Competition
Answer:
(b) Globalization
Question 19.
Which of the following statements is correct keeping the requirement of formation of government? [1]
Statement i: It is possible for independent candidates to form a government.
Statement ii: Government formation as exclusively reserved for political parties.
Statement iii: The formation of government is limited to only elected political parties.
Statement iv: Government can only be formed by political parties that are elected and hold a majority.
Options:
(a) Statement (i) and (ii) are right.
(b) Statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are right.
(c) Statement (iii) is right.
(d) Only Statement (iv) is right.
Answer:
(d) Only Statement (iv) is right.
Question 20.
Miss “S” approached a’ bank nearby to avail loan for her own business, as well as a Self-help group which is operating in her village, the bank rejected her loan application whereas the Self-help group accepted to support her by providing the loan. Which one of the following documents is required by the bank, but not required by the self-help group to approve Miss “S’s” loan application for her business? [1]
(a) Application for loans
(b) Arrangement Letter
(c) Document on Collateral
(d) Demand promissory note and take delivery letter.
Answer:
(c) Document on Collateral.
Section – B
Very Short Answer Questions (2 x 4 = 8)
Question 21.
Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium. [2]
Answer:
According to the map, the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium are Dutch and French.
Question 22.
(A) “The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conqueror was not a conventional military weapon at all.” Justify the above statement by giving two reasons. [21
OR
(B) “Traders and travellers introduced new crops to lands they travelled. “Substantiate this statement with illustrations.
Answer:
(A)
- Spanish conquerors won America with not a conventional military weapon but with germs like smallpox which spread deep into the continent before any European could reach there.
- America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that came from Europe. This disease erased the whole community, leading to conquest. This biological warfare in the mid-sixteenth century made it easy for Spanish to overpower the Americans.
OR
(B)
- It is believed that noodles travelled west from China to become Spaghetti. Or, perhaps Arab Traders took Pasta to fifth-century Sicily, an island now in Italy. Similar foods were also known in India and Japan, so the truth about their origins may never be known.
- Many of our common foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chilies, sweet potatoes, and so on were not known to our ancestors until about five centuries ago. These foods were only introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered the vast continent that would later become known as the Americas.
Question 23.
Mr. Palani is from Tamil Nadu and wishes to cultivate either Tea or Wheat. Which one of the crops out of the two can he cultivate in his state? Substantiate your answer with any two reasons. [2]
Answer:
Mr. Palani must cultivate Tea in Tamil Nadu as the soil and climatic conditions in Tamil Nadu are suitable to grow Tea.
- The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained latente soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
- Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.
Question 24.
Mention any two reasons to state that India is a federal country.
Answer:
The following are the reasons to state that India is a federal country:
(i) Division of Powers: The Constitution of India clearly demarcates the powers of the Central and State governments, and both have their separate areas of jurisdiction. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List, which define the powers and responsibilities of the Central and State governments.
(ii) Independent Judiciary: India has an independent judiciary with the power of judicial review. The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country and has the power to interpret the Constitution and resolve disputes between the Central and State governments.
(iii) Representation of States: The Rajya Sabha, the Upper House of the Indian Parliament, represents the States and Union Territories of India. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected b the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories.
Section – C
Short Answer Based Questions (3 x 5 = 15)
Question 25.
Provide evidence to support the claim that print culture had a significant impact on the social lives of women in India. [3]
Answer:
(i) The rise of print culture in India during the 19th century played a crucial role in awakening the social life of women. Women could access information, knowledge, and ideas that were previously inaccessible to them. Women’s magazines, newspapers, and books provided a platform for women to express their views, ideas, and opinions on various social issues such as education, gender equality, women’s rights, and social reform.
(ii) Liberal husbands and fathers began educating their womenfolk at home and sent them to schools. In East Bengal, Rassundari Devi, learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen and wrote her autobiography Amar liban (1876). It was the first full-length autobiography published in the Bengali language.
(iii) The Bengali women like Kailashbashini Debi wrote books highlighting the experiences of women about how women were imprisoned at home, kept in ignorance, forced to do hard domestic labour and treated unjustly by their families. In Maharashtra, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai wrote with passionate anger about the miserable lives of upper-caste Hindu women, especially widows.
Question 26.
(A) A worker in an urban area, who was working in small factory was not paid his wages properly, he was forced to work extra hours under poor working conditions, there was no job security, recently he lost his job and was found selling electrical items in a pushcart. [3]
Analyze the role of the government in protecting the workers working in an Unorganized sector.
OR
(B) Mr. Pawan, a village head wanted to create more job opportunities to increase the income of the people of his village under MGNREGA acts, Suggest any three activities, so that Mr. Pawan could initiate in his village.
Answer:
(A) The following are the ways in which the workers in the unorganised sector can be protected by the government:
- The small factories must be registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
- The government can provide loans to help unemployed educated youth to start their own business.
- The workers are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the laws, the factory manager has to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
OR
(B) Under MGNREGA Act, he can initiate the following activities to increase the income of the people living in his village:
- Cleaning the pond: Cleaning and maintaining water bodies such as lakes and ponds can help to improve the quality of water and make it suitable for irrigation purposes. This can lead to increased agricultural productivity, which, in turn, can increase the income of the farmers. Additionally, cleaning of the pond can provide employment opportunities for the local people.
- Construction of village roads: The construction of village roads can improve connectivity and accessibility within the village, making it easier for people to commute to work or transport goods. This can help to increase economic activity in the village, creating more job opportunities and boosting the income of the local people.
- Cooperative milk society/small-scale industry: The formation of a cooperative milk society can provide a platform for the local dairy farmers to collectively sell their milk and other dairy products, increasing their income. Similarly, the establishment of a small-scale industry can generate employment opportunities and create a market for local products, which can further contribute to increasing the income of the people.
- Construction work: The construction of houses, community centers, and other infrastructure projects can generate employment opportunities for the local people, helping to boost their income. This can also improve the living standards of the villagers, making it a sustainable solution for poverty reduction.
Question 27.
‘Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector’. Justify the statement with any three relevant points. [31
Answer:
Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector in the following ways:
(i) Raw Material Supply: Agriculture is a significant source of raw materials for various industries, such as food processing, textiles, and paper. For instance, the cotton industry relies heavily on the production of cotton from agricultural fields. Similarly, food processing industries rely on agricultural products such as fruits, vegetables, and cereals. Thus, a healthy agricultural sector can ensure a steady supply of raw materials for industries, which in turn, can boost their productivity and growth.
(ii) Market Expansion: Agriculture provides a vast market for industrial products. For example, the use of agricultural machinery such as tractors, tillers, and harvesters creates a demand for industrial goods, including steel, plastics, and rubber. Moreover, the growth of the agricultural sector increases the purchasing power of farmers, who become a significant consumer group for industrial products such as consumer goods, automobiles and appliances.
(iii) Employment Generation: Agriculture is a labor-intensive sector that generates employment opportunities for a significant population in India. A healthy agricultural sector can increase the income levels of farmers and agricultural workers, which in turn, can create a demand for industrial products and services. Additionally, agriculture-related industries such as food processing and agrochemicals also create job opportunities, especially in rural areas. Thus, a robust agricultural sector can help to reduce unemployment and poverty, which are major challenges in India.
Question 28.
The Indian constitution provides three lists to distribute the legislative power. State any two subjects that are included in the union list. In which list the subject 11 Education” is included and why? [3]
Answer:
(i) The Indian Constitution has a three-fold distribution of legislative power, which contains three lists: The Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. The subjects that are included in the Union List are those that are under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Union Government.
(ii) Some of the subjects that are included in the Union List are defense of the country, foreign affairs and relations, banking, currency, and coinage, railways and air transport, posts and telegraphs, census and statistics, copyrights, patents and trademarks.
(iii) The subject “Education” comes under the Concurrent List, which means that both the Union Government and the State Governments have the power to make laws on this subject. The Concurrent List contains subjects that are of common interest to both the Union and the State Governments.
Question 29.
Compare Tables “A” & “B” and answer the question given below. [3]
Table-A
Share of Sectors in GDP in % | |||
Year | Tertiary | Secondary | Primary |
1973-74 | 50 | 10 | 40 |
2013-14 | 68 | 21 | 11 |
Table-B
Share of Sectors in Employment in % | |||
Year | Tertiary | Secondary | Primary |
1977-78 | 18 | 11 | 71 |
2017-18 | 31 | 25 | 44 |
A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in CDI’, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Why didn’t a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Substantial shift in employment in primary sector didn’t happen due to the following reasons:
(i) Insufficient job creation in the secondary and tertiary sectors: The primary reason for the limited shift in employment from the primary sector is the failure to generate an adequate number of jobs in the secondary (industrial) and tertiary (service) sectors. The growth of industrial output and service sector production has been significant, but the corresponding increase in employment opportunities has been comparatively lower.
(ii) Underemployment in the agricultural sector: The primary sector, particularly agriculture, suffers from underemployment, with more people engaged in farming than necessarc Even if a few individuals are moved out of agriculture, it does not significantly affect the production. This indicates that workers in the agricultural sector are not fully utilised, leading to a lower
productivity level.
(iii) Share of sectors in employment: Though industrial output or the production of goods went up by more than nine times during the period, employment in the industry went up by around three times. The same applies to the tertiary sector as well. While production in the service sector rose by 14 times, employment in the service sector rose around five times. As a result, more than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in agriculture, producing only about one-sixth of the GDP. In contrast to this, the secondary and tertiary sectors produce the rest of the produce whereas they employ less about half the people.
Section – D
Long Answer Based Questions (5 x 4 = 20)
Question 30.
(A) Analyze the impact of mining activities on the local environment and the health of the surrounding communities. [5]
OR
(B) “Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural resources” Substantiate this statement with examples.
Answer:
(A)
- The miners are prone to inhaling the dust and noxious fumes that make them vulnerable to pulmonary diseases. There is also a risk of mine roofs collapsing.
- The miners are at a constant risk of inundation and fires in coal mines.
- Mining has a negative effect on the environment as it produces a lot of waste.
- Mining disrupts the local flora and fauna and contaminates the local water sources.
- It can also require the removal of the topsoil, leading to soil erosion.
OR
(B)
- Non-conventional resources are also known as renewable sources of energy. Examples of non-conventional sources of energy include solar energy. bioenergy, tidal energy, wind energy, geothermal energy, natural gas, etc.
- They are inexhaustible and renewable. They are also considered as clean sources of energy.
- Optimal use of resources of energy minimizes environmental impact and non-conventional resources produce minimum secondary waste compared to use conventional sources.
- The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly depend on fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and gas. Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future, which in turn, has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
- Natural gas is considered an environment-friendly fuel because of low carbon emissions. It does not cause air pollution or environmental degradation. Thus, it is the fuel for present century.
- Renewable energy resources provide an excellent opportunity for mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions and reducing global warming through substituting conventional energy sources.
Question 31.
(A) How would you evaluate Napoleon as an administrator who created a more rational and efficient system? Elucidate with suitable examples. [5]
OR
(B) Analyze the decisions taken by the conservatives at the Congress of Vienna in the year 1815.
Answer:
(A)
- The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code, was followed by regions under the French control. This code secured the rights to property established equality before law, and removed all privileges based on birth.
- In territories under French control such as Italy, Germany, Switzerland and Dutch Republic, peasants were freed from manorial dues, serfdom.
- Feudal system was abolished and administrative divisions were simplified. Guild restriction was removed in towns.
- Common national currency, standardized measures and weights, and uniform laws that were introduced, were of great help for the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one state to other.
- There were improvements in communication and transport systems.
OR
(B)
- The representatives of the four great Britain powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria met at Vienna, after collectively defeating Napoleon. They drew up the Treaty of Vienna in 1815, and was hosted by the Austrian chancellor Duke Metternich.
- The objective of the treaty was to undo the changes that had come under Napoleon and to restore the monarchies, and create a new conservative order in Europe.
- The Bourbon dynasty was restored to power.
- France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up Ion the French boundary to prevent it from future expansion. Kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north. Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south. Prussia was given territories on its western fronts and Austria was given control of Italy.
- The German confederation of 39 states was left untouched. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland, while Prussia was given part of Saxony. The new conservative regime did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and curbed activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments.
Question 32.
(A) Analyse the role of a multiparty system in a democratic country like India. [5]
OR
(B) Evaluate the significant distinction between the national and regional parties and assess the requirements for a regional party to become a national party.
Answer:
(A)
- In a democracy like India, multiparty politics plays a crucial role in representing the diverse interests and aspirations of the citizens. It allows for a competitive and dynamic political environment where parties with different ideologies and agendas can participate and compete for the support of the electorate.
- A multiparty system provides a check and balance against any one party becoming too powerful and dominant.
- People can make a choice between several candidates as this system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.
- Different and diverse parties could be representing the sections of society and power does not get absorbed in the hands of one single party.
- India adopted this system because of the vast diversity and plurality of the nation.
(B)
OR
National Parties | Regional Parties |
They are powerful in the entire nation and deals with national issues. | Their power is limited to a specific region or state, and only the demands of a specific region is discussed by them. |
Their actions offer preference to national issues. | Their action offer preference to regional issues. |
Their operations spans over the entire nation. | Their operations are confined to the state. |
A party must gain at least six percent of the total votes in Lok Sabha or assembly elections in four states to become a national party. | A party must receive at least six percent of the total votes in the assembly election to become a regional party and win at least two seats. |
Example – BJF, Congress, BSP, etc. | Example – DMK, Aam Admi Party, etc. |
Question 33.
(A) A farmer has borrowed money from a money lender at a high rate of interest, as could not pay the interest, he was forced to borrow from another landlord to settle the amount for the interest borrowed to the money lender. State the consequences he may face in this situation. [5]
OR
(B) “Self-help groups eliminates poverty and empowers women”. Substantiate with suitable answer.
Answer:
(A)
- The farmer has fallen into a “Debt Trap”. He would have to face ongoing harassment and physical harm from the men sent by the moneylender.
- He will not be able to make regular payments or repay the full amount that he had borrowed, leading to significant stress and anxiety as well as potential physical injuries.
- Borrowing from another landlord to repay the original loan will create a vicious cycle of debt for him.
- He would experience personal consequences like mental stress, anxiety and depression due to constant pressure of repayments and harassment from the lenders.
OR
(B)
- Self-help groups help the poor to become self-reliant in terms of savings and generating income. They can avail the facilities of loans from formal sources like banks at low rate of interest. They do not demand collateral and so it is easy to access by the poor.
- Self-help groups are exclusively meant for rural women to make them economically independent through self-employment opportunities. It helps to improve other development factors such as literacy levels, improved healthcare, and better family planning.
- SHGs provide women with a platform to save and access credit at affordable rates, which enables them to start and expand small businesses. Thus improving their standard of living.
- SHGs in India have also been successful in providing skill development and training opportunities to women. Through training programs, women are equipped with the necessary skills to start and run successful businesses.
- By providing a platform for women to come together, share their experiences, and support each other, SHGs have empowered women to take charge of their lives and become active participants in their communities.
Section – E
Case-Based Questions (4 x 3 = 12)
Question 34.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active ‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagraha does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek
his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill will whatever. ‘Satyagraha is pure soul force.
Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma …‘ It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own.
In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India, with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule will collapse within a year.
Question 34.1.
Why did Gandhiji say that passive resistance is not the weapon of the weak? [1]
Answer:
Passive resistance calls for intensive activity which can only be used by the strong. This is why Gandhiji said that passive resistance is not the weapon of the weak.
Question 34.2.
“Satyagraha is pure soul force.” Substantiate this statement in 20 words. [1]
Answer:
Satyagraha uses the force of truth which itself is the substance of the soul that is informed with knowledge. This is why satyagraha is pure soul-force.
Question 34.3.
What according to Mahatma Gandhi is the best weapon to use to collapse British rule in India?
Answer:
In his book Hind Swaraj, Gandhiji declared that non-cooperation would be the best weapon to collapse British rule in India. It was only because of the Indian cooperation that the British were able to set their rule here.
Question 35.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Maharashtra is a state located in western India, with a population of over 110 million people. The state is home to several large cities, including Mumbai, and has a significant agricultural sector. However, the state is facing a severe water crisis, with its water resources coming under increasing pressure due to climate change, industrialization, and urbanization. The main challenges faced by water resource management in Maharashtra are:
(i) Overexploitation of groundwater Maharashtra is one of the most groundwater-stressed states in India, with the demand for water exceeding the supply. Overexploitation of groundwater for agriculture and urban use has led to a decline in water levels, which has severe implications for the sustainability of water resources.
(ii) Pollution of surface water: Industrialization and urbanization have led to the pollution of surface water bodies such as rivers and lakes. The pollution has led to water quality degradation, which poses risks to human health and the environment.
(iii) Inefficient irrigation practices: The agricultural sector is the largest user of water in Maharashtra, accounting for around 80% of total water use. However, traditional irrigation practices such as flood irrigation are inefficient and lead to the wastage of water.
Question 35.1.
Mention any one reason for the water crisis faced by the state of Maharashtra. [1]
Answer:
Reasons for the water crisis faced by Maharashtra are:
- Overexploitation of groundwater due to increasing demand of water.
- Pollution of surface water bodies due to industrialisation and urbanisation.
Question 35.2.
Propose any one solution to mitigate the water crisis faced by Maharashtra state. [1]
Answer:
Promoting adoption of efficient irrigation practices, such as drip irrigation and sprinkler systems, which uses less water and are more targeted can be one solution to mitigate the water crisis in Maharashtra. Rainwater harvesting systems can also be used by the state to further improve groundwater levels along the western side of the Western Chats.
Question 35.3.
Despite being the second-highest rainfall-receiving state of the country Maharashtra still faces water crisis. Substantiate this statement in 40 words. [2]
Answer:
- Traditional irrigation leads to water shortages in Maharashtra, despite receiving the second-highest rainfall in the country.
- Flood irrigation uses excessive water, and the water is lost due to runoff. This leads to lower availability of water for other uses.
Question 36.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human being need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal. Now, what is the income of a country? Intuitively, the income of the country is the income of all the residents of the country. This gives us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population.
The average income is also called per capita income. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries. Countries with per capital income of US$ 49,300 per annum and above in 2019, are called high-income or rich income or rich countries and those with per capita income of 125$ 2,500 or less are called low-income countries. The rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries are generally called development countries.
Question 36.1.
Explain the significance of per capital income.
Answer:
Per capita income enables comparisons between countries and provides insights into the relative economic performance and living standards across different nations. It also serves as an important indicator of the standard of living in a country.
Question 36.2
What are the classifications of countries based on per capital income, and which entity is responsible for determining these classifications? [2]
Answer:
The countries are classified into high-income or rich countries and low-income countries based on their per capita income. If the per capita income is US$ 49,300 per annum, it will be classified as a rich country and if the per capita income is US$ 2500 per annum, it will be called a poor country The World Bank determines these classifications.
Section – F
Map Skill-Based Questions (2 + 3 = 5)
Question 37.
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. [2]
(a) Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(i) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1920.
(ii) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols. [3]
(i) A Coal mine in Tamil Nadu
(ii) A dam built on river Chenab
(iii) A largest natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh
(iv) Noida Software Technology Park
Answer: