Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions
Time : 3 hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
- The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are 37 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C – contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
- Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are Case Based Questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is Map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
- Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based questions.
Section – A
MCQs (1 x 20 = 20)
Question 1.
Identify the correct option that describes the act given below. [1]
(i) The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
(ii) It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
(iii) It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.
Options:
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Vernacular Press Act
(c) Government of India Act
(d) Inland Emigration Act
Answer:
(a) Rowlatt Act
Question 2.
Which of the following options are correct regarding the various developments which happened in the wake of the fleeing of Louis Philippe in the year 1848? (1)
I. National Assembly was proclaimed a republic.
II. National workshops were set up to provide employment.
III. Suffrage to all women.
IV. Right to work was guaranteed.
Codes
(a) I, II, and IV
(b) II and III
(c) Only III
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(a) I, II, and IV
Question 3.
Read the data given below and answer the question.
Educational Achievement of Rural Population of Uttar Pradesh.
Category | Males | Females |
Literacy rate for the rural population | 76% | 54% |
Literacy rate for rural children in the age group 10-14 years | 90% | 90% |
Percentage of rural children aged 10-14 attending school | 85% | 82% |
As per the data given above who has the least percentage of literacy rate in the rural population?
(a) Male
(b) Children
(c) Male and Female
(d) Female
Answer:
(d) Female
Question 4.
At which of the following places, a children’s press was set up in 1857?
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) France
(d) China
Answer:
(c) France
Question 5.
When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, was chosen as its headquarters. [1]
(a) Brussels
(b) Paris
(c) London
(d) Zurich
Answer:
(a) Brussels
Question 6.
The secondary sector is also known as this sector produces useful items from natural products. (1)
(a) manufacturing
(b) construction
(c) building
(d) making
Answer:
(a) manufacturing
Question 7.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Democracies are based on political equality. [1]
Reason (R): All individuals have an equal say in electing representatives.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question 8.
Four students named Ansh, Shikha, Kabir, and Joseph were given the task of writing any one feature of alluvial soil on a blackboard. (1)
I. Shikha wrote that alluvial soil is described based on age. The older alluvial soil, further away from the rivers is known as bangar; whereas the newer soil near the rivers is known as khadar.
II. Joseph wrote that alluvial soil is found in the plateau areas of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh, as well as in the Godavari and Krishna valleys.
III. Ansh wrote that alluvial soil is also known as transported soil, as it has been transported by the rivers to its current location.
IV. Kabir wrote that alluvial soil is made up of fine clayey material with a high moisture retention capacity. Suppose you are a social science teacher.
Which among the following students has answered the question incorrectly?
(a) Ansh and Shikha
(b) Kabir and Joseph
(c) Only Joseph
(d) Ansh and Kabir
Answer:
(b) Kabir and Joseph
Question 9.
You are a citizen of a country that has a democratic form of government. You want to ensure that the system of power-sharing in your country is effective and that no one branch of government has absolute power. Which of the following measures would best meet this goal? [1]
(a) All power is concentrated in the hands of the legislature only.
(b) Power is divided between the central government and the states or provinces, with each level having its sphere of influence.
(c) Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its responsibilities and powers.
(d) Power is shared among different levels of government, such as the national, regional, and local governments, with each level having some degree of autonomy.
Answer:
(c) Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its responsibilities and powers.
Question 10.
There are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes given below. (1)
Assertion (A) Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism.
Reason (R) The spirit of federalism, respect for diversity, and desire for living together became a shared ideal in our country.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true. but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true. but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 11.
Evaluate the impacts of opening foreign trade on the global economy by identifying the appropriate statements among the following options: [1]
(i) The choice of goods in the markets increases.
(ii) Producers from two countries closely compete against each other despite the distance between their locations.
(iii) Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
(iv) The quality of the product is always good.
Options:
(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are appropriate.
(b) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are appropriate.
(c) All the statements are appropriate.
(d) Only statement (iv) is appropriate.
Answer:
(b) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are appropriate.
Question 12.
Consider the following statements concerning residuary subjects and select the answer using the codes given below. (1
I. It includes subjects of national importance.
II. These subjects came up after the Constitution came into effect.
III. Only the Union Government has the power to legislate on these subjects.
Codes
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both II and III
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Both II and III
Question 13.
Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that shaped the non-cooperation movement. [1]
(i) General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh.
(ii) “Forced recruitment” carried out by the British government and the economic hardships faced by the people during the First World War.
(iii) The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the Khilafat movement.
(iv) Gandhiji launched a nationwide satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act.
Options:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer:
All the given options in this question are incorrect. The correct option should be – (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Explanation: The correct sequential order for the events that shaped the Non-Cooperation Movement is as follows:
(ii) “Forced recruitment” carried out by the British government and the economic hardships faced by the people during the First World War. (1914-1918)
(iv) Gandhiji launched a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act. (6 April 1919)
(i) General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh. (13 April 1919)
(iii) The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the Khilafat Movement. (January 1921)
Question 14.
The least expectation from democracy is that
(a) it cannot accommodate various social life. (1)
(b) it should produce a harmonious social life.
(c) it develops procedures to conduct competition.
(d) it reduces the possibility of violent tensions.
Answer:
(a) it cannot accommodate various social life.
Question 15.
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer: [1]
Statement I: Western printing techniques and mechanical press were imported in the late 19th Century as Western powers established their outposts in China.
Statement II: Beijing became the hub of the new print culture, catering to Western-style schools.
(a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
(c) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect.
(d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct.
Answer:
(a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
Question 16.
Consider the following statements. (1)
I. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country is the sum of the value of all final goods and services produced in all three sectors in a particular year.
II. Those goods and services that are used for further production or processing are called final goods.
III. The task of estimating the GDP in India is undertaken by the State Government Ministry.
IV. Those goods and services that are directly consumed by the consumers and are not meant for further production or processing are called intermediary goods. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Codes
(a) II and III
(b) Only II
(c) I and III
(d) II, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) II, III, and IV
Question 17.
Choose the right option to fill in the blank. [1]
The emergence of …………………………….. is directly connected to the rise of political parties.
(a) Monitory democracies
(b) Direct democracies
(c) Representative democracies
(d) Constitutional democracies
Answer:
(c) Representative democracies
Question 18.
A man works on a corn farm, although he doesn’t do a lot of manual labour. Every day, he works solely on the farm. What kind of employment is this an example of?
(a) Disguised Employment
(b) Seasonal Employment
(c) Over Employment
(d) Cyclical Employment.
Answer:
(b) Seasonal Employment
Question 19.
Which of the following statements is correct keeping the requirement of formation of government? [1]
Statement i: Independent candidates can form a government.
Statement ii: Government formation is exclusively reserved for political parties.
Statement iii: The formation of government is limited to only elected political parties.
Statement iv: Government can only be formed by political parties that are elected and hold a majority.
Options:
(a) Statement (i) and (ii) are right.
(b) Statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are right.
(c) Statement (iii) is right.
(d) Only Statement (iv) is right.
Answer:
(d) Only Statement (iv) is right.
Question 20.
Arrange the following in a chronological order.
I. Interest rate of loan is 8.5% per annum
II. Shyam applies for a credit
III. Bank agrees to keep cold storage receipt as collateral
IV. Terms of credit is signed by Shvain
Codes
(a) IV, III, I, II
(b) III, IV, I, II
(c) II, I, III, IV
(d) II, IV, III, I
Answer:
(b) III, IV, I, II
Section – B
Very Short Answer Questions (2 x 4 = 8)
Question 21.
Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium. [2]
Answer:
According to the map, the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium are Dutch and French.
Question 22.
What was the reason behind the launching of a new economic policy by the Indan Government in the year 1991?
Answer:
The reason behind the launching of the New Economic Policy 1991 was to reduce inflation rates and build up adequate reserves for foreign money to increase its economic growth rate The major aim was to plunge the Indian Economy into the globalization arena and provide it with a new direction in the market.
Question 23.
Mr. Palani is from Tamil Nadu and wishes to cultivate either Tea or Wheat. Which one of the crops out of the two can he cultivate in his state? Substantiate your answer with any two reasons. [2]
Answer:
Mr. Palani must cultivate Tea in Tamil Nadu as the soil and climatic conditions in Tamil Nadu are suitable for growing Tea.
- The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained laterite soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
- Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.
Question 24.
What led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement by Mahatma Gandhi? (2)
Or
What was the Poona Pact? (2)
Answer:
Gandhiji decided to withdraw from the Non-Cooperation Movement because the movement took a violent turn at Chauri Chaura, Uttar Pradesh where the people set on fire a Police Station in which 22-23 policemen were burnt alive in 1922. Gandhiji wanted to stop violence at any cost.
Or
The Poona Pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and BR Ambedkar in September 1932 to resolve the issue of separate electorates for Dalits. It gave the depressed classes reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.
Section – C
Short Answer Based Questions (3 x 5 = 15)
Question 25.
Provide evidence to support the claim that print culture had a significant impact on the social lives of women in India. [3]
Answer:
(i) The rise of print culture in India during the 19th century played a crucial role in awakening the social life of women. Women could access information, knowledge, and ideas that were previously inaccessible to them. Women’s magazines, newspapers, and books provided a platform for women to express their views, ideas, and opinions on various social issues such as education, gender equality, women’s rights, and social reform.
(ii) Liberal husbands and fathers began educating their womenfolk at home and sent them to schools. In East Bengal, Rassundari Devi, learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen and wrote her autobiography Amar Liban (1876). It was the first full-length autobiography published in the Bengali language.
(iii) Bengali women like Kailashbashini Debi wrote books highlighting the experiences of women about how women were imprisoned at home, kept in ignorance, forced to do hard domestic labour, and treated unjustly by their families. In Maharashtra, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai wrote with passionate anger about the miserable lives of upper-caste Hindu women, especially widows.
Question 26.
Study the pie chart given above and answer the following question.
Rural households are dependent on which source of credit on a large scale. Also, state the reason behind your answer. (1+2)
Answer:
Rural households are dependent on informal sources of credit on a large scale. This is because of the following reasons
- There is limited availability of banks in rural areas which increases dependence on informal sources of credit as they are easily available in rural areas.
- Bank loans require proper documentation and collateral which is rarely available in poor households.
- Rural people lack collateral that prevents them from getting bank loans As the banks are formal sources of credit that require collateral for loans.
Question 27.
‘Agriculture gives a boost to the industrial sector’. Justify the statement with any three relevant points. [31
Answer:
Agriculture gives a boost to the industrial sector in the following ways:
(i) Raw Material Supply: Agriculture is a significant source of raw materials for various industries, such as food processing, textiles, and paper. For instance, the cotton industry relies heavily on the production of cotton from agricultural fields. Similarly, food processing industries rely on agricultural products such as fruits, vegetables, and cereals. Thus, a healthy agricultural sector can ensure a steady supply of raw materials for industries, which in turn, can boost their productivity and growth.
(ii) Market Expansion: Agriculture provides a vast market for industrial products. For example, the use of agricultural machinery such as tractors, tillers, and harvesters creates a demand for industrial goods, including steel, plastics, and rubber. Moreover, the growth of the agricultural sector increases the purchasing power of farmers, who become a significant consumer group for industrial products such as consumer goods, automobiles, and appliances.
(iii) Employment Generation: Agriculture is a labor-intensive sector that generates employment opportunities for a significant population in India. A healthy agricultural sector can increase the income levels of farmers and agricultural workers, which in turn, can create a demand for industrial products and services. Additionally, agriculture-related industries such as food processing and agrochemicals also create job opportunities, especially in rural areas. Thus, a robust agricultural sector can help to reduce unemployment and poverty, which are major challenges in India.
Question 28.
Which sector usually provides a maximum number of employment opportunities in urban centers? Why is it so? (3)
Answer:
The tertiary sector provides usually a maximum number of employment opportunities in urban centers. Reasons for providing such a huge number of employment in this sector are given below
- The tertiary sector provides essential services like banking, healthcare, and education, Developments in agriculture and industry have led to the requirement for services like transport, storage, and trade. etc.
- When income levels rise, people start demanding more services like shopping malls, tourism, professional training, etc. This increases the demand for such services, especially in urban centers.
- Due to Westernization, the needs of people keep changing from time to time, which increases demand for various goods and services. Thus, to meet these demands, the tertiary sector is continuously expanding its area by providing jobs to people
Question 29.
Compare Tables “A” & “B” and answer the question given below. [3]
Table-A
Share of Sectors in GDP in % | |||
Year | Tertiary | Secondary | Primary |
1973-74 | 50 | 10 | 40 |
2013-14 | 68 | 21 | 11 |
Table-B
Share of Sectors in Employment in % | |||
Year | Tertiary | Secondary | Primary |
1977-78 | 18 | 11 | 71 |
2017-18 | 31 | 25 | 44 |
A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in CDI’, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Why didn’t a similar shift out of the primary sector happen in the case of employment? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
A substantial shift in employment in the primary sector didn’t happen due to the following reasons:
(i) Insufficient job creation in the secondary and tertiary sectors: The primary reason for the limited shift in employment from the primary sector is the failure to generate an adequate number of jobs in the secondary (industrial) and tertiary (service) sectors. The growth of industrial output and service sector production has been significant, but the corresponding increase in employment opportunities has been comparatively lower.
(ii) Underemployment in the agricultural sector: The primary sector, particularly agriculture, suffers from underemployment, with more people engaged in farming than necessary Even if a few individuals are moved out of agriculture, it does not significantly affect the production. This indicates that workers in the agricultural sector are not fully utilized, leading to a lower
productivity level.
(iii) Share of sectors in employment: Though industrial output or the production of goods went up by more than nine times during the period, employment in the industry went up by around three times. The same applies to the tertiary sector as well. While production in the service sector rose by 14 times, employment in the service sector rose by around five times. As a result, more than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in agriculture, producing only about one-sixth of the GDP. In contrast to this, the secondary and tertiary sectors produce the rest of the produce whereas they employ less than half the people.
Section – D
Long Answer Based Questions (5 x 4 = 20)
Question 30.
How did the Belgians resolve the ethnic conflict? (5)
Or
Explain five differences between the democracies in Belgium and Sri Lanka. (5)
Answer:
The Belgians resolved the ethnic conflict between 1970 and 1993 in the following ways
- They amended their Constitution four times, to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.
- Belgian Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the Central Government No single community can make decisions unilaterally.
- The State Governments are not subordinate to the Central Government. Many powers of the Central Government have been given to State Governments.
A third type of government i.e. ‘Community Government has the power regarding cultural, educational, and language-related issues which can help the Belgians to resolve ethnic conflict. These divisions of governments in Belgium have worked well. They helped to avoid civic strife between the two major communities and a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Brussels was chosen as the headquarters of the European Union due to the successful Belgian model of tackling ethnic conflict.
Or,
Five differences between the democracies in Belgium and Sri Lanka were as follows
Basis | Democracies in Belgium | Democracies In Sri Lanka |
Different Policies Followed | Belgium produced ideal example of a democratic system It adopted the policy of accommodation of social and ethnics divisions. | Sri Lanka also adopted a democratic system. but followed majoritarian policies. |
Power Sharing | Under the Belgium model of democracy, power was shared among two ethnic groups. | Sri Lanka favoured the interests of the majority Sinhala community only. |
Equality | In Belgium, both the groups had equal share in working of government | In Sri Lanka, the minority community was isolated. |
Maintenance of Political stability and unity | To maintain political Stability and unity in Belgium, equal representation was provided to both the groups. Community governments of both the ethnic groups also existed at the local level. | In Sri Lanka, there was no such arrangement. |
Flexibility | In Belgium, the Constitution was amended four times before arriving at a final draft to prevent civil strife. | In Sri Lanka, majoritarianism led to Civil War for twenty years. |
Question 31.
(A) How would you evaluate Napoleon as an administrator who created a more rational and efficient system? Elucidate with suitable examples. [5]
OR
(B) Analyze the decisions taken by the conservatives at the Congress of Vienna in the year 1815.
Answer:
(A)
- The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code, was followed by regions under French control. This code secured property rights established equality before the law, and removed all privileges based on birth.
- In territories under French control such as Italy, Germany, Switzerland, and the Dutch Republic, peasants were freed from manorial dues and serfdom.
- The feudal system was abolished and administrative divisions were simplified. Guild restriction was removed in towns.
- Common national currency, standardized measures and weights, and uniform laws that were introduced, were of great help for the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one state to another.
- There were improvements in communication and transport systems.
OR
(B)
- The representatives of the four great Britain powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria met at Vienna, after collectively defeating Napoleon. They drew up the Treaty of Vienna in 1815, and was hosted by the Austrian chancellor Duke Metternich.
- The objective of the treaty was to undo the changes that had come under Napoleon and to restore the monarchies, and create a new conservative order in Europe.
- The Bourbon dynasty was restored to power.
- France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up Ion the French boundary to prevent it from future expansion. Kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north. Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south. Prussia was given territories on its western fronts and Austria was given control of Italy.
- The German confederation of 39 states was left untouched. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland, while Prussia was given part of Saxony. The new conservative regime did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and curbed activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments.
Question 32.
“Railways are the lifelines of the country” Comment. (5)
Or
In India, roads are classified into different classes according to their capacity. State different types of roads in brief. (5)
Answer:
Railways are indeed the lifelines of the country. It can be understood through the following points
Employment Railways create many opportunities of employment in India. Lakhs of skilled and unskilled people are employed in operating the railway functions.
Encouragement to Tourism The connectivity of always to various tourist spots encourages the tourism industry. Thus, it boosts the national economy.
Cover Long Distance Railways can carry goods and passengers over very long distances Thus, cover different parts of India.
Helpful during Calamities During natural calamities, railways help the stranded people to reach the relief centers. These are helpful during famines by carrying food grains from surplus to affected areas.
Strategic Importance Railways are useful for the internal security of the country and also carry defense material to various regions during external threats.
Or
In India, roads are classified in Six classes according to capacity as given below
(i) Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways This super highway links India’s four largest metropolitan cities, i.e. Delhi-Kolkata
Chennai-Mumbai. North-South and East-West corridors are part of this. These highways reduce time and artistic distance between megacities.
(ii) National Highways These are primary road systems that link important parts of the country.
(iii) State Highways These roads ink a state capital with its district headquarters These are constructed by the State Public Works Department.
(iv) District Roads These roads connect the district headquarters with other places in The district.
(v) Rural Roads These roads, are also known as other roads. link rural areas and villages with towns.
(vi) Border Roads These roads are constructed along the lnternaíional border of India by the Border Road Organisation. It has improved accessibility in areas of difficult terrain.
Question 33.
(A) A farmer has borrowed money from a money lender at a high rate of interest, as could not pay the interest, he was forced to borrow from another landlord to settle the amount for the interest borrowed to the money lender. State the consequences he may face in this situation. [5]
OR
(B) “Self-help groups eliminate poverty and empower women”. Substantiate with a suitable answer.
Answer:
(A)
- The farmer has fallen into a “Debt Trap”. He would have to face ongoing harassment and physical harm from the men sent by the moneylender.
- He will not be able to make regular payments or repay the full amount that he borrowed, leading to significant stress and anxiety as well as potential physical injuries.
- Borrowing from another landlord to repay the original loan will create a vicious cycle of debt for him.
- He would experience personal consequences like mental stress, anxiety, and depression due to the constant pressure of repayments and harassment from the lenders.
OR
(B)
- Self-help groups help the poor to become self-reliant in terms of savings and generating income. They can avail of the facilities of loans from formal sources like banks at low rates of interest. They do not demand collateral so it is easy to access the poor.
- Self-help groups are exclusively meant for rural women to make them economically independent through self-employment opportunities. It helps to improve other development factors such as literacy levels, improved healthcare, and better family planning.
- SHGs provide women with a platform to save and access credit at affordable rates, which enables them to start and expand small businesses. Thus improving their standard of living.
- SHGs in India have also been successful in providing skill development and training opportunities to women. Through training programs, women are equipped with the necessary skills to start and run successful businesses.
- By providing a platform for women to come together, share their experiences, and support each other, SHGs have empowered women to take charge of their lives and become active participants in their communities.
Section – E
Case-Based Questions (4 x 3 = 12)
Question 34.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Arguments about democracy tend to be very passionate. This is how it should be, for democracy appeals to some of our deep values These debates cannot be resolved simply. But some debates about democracy can and should be resolved by referring to some facts and figures. The debate about the economic outcomes of democracy is one such debate. Over the years, many students of democracy have gathered careful evidence to see the relationship of democracy with economic growth and economic inequalities.
A particular study shows that on an average dictatorial regime have had a slightly better record of economic growth. But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually no difference. Another study shows that within democracies there can be a very high degree of inequalities. In democratic countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 percent of people take away more than 60 percent of the national income, leaving less than 3 percent for the bottom 20 percent population. Countries like Denmark and Hungary are much better in this respect.
One can easily infer that there is often in equality of opportunities available to the poorer sections.
(i) Which type of outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figures analysis? (1)
(ii) Benefits of higher national income are enjoyed by a small proportion of its population while a larger proportion has to settle with the remaining small portion of the national income. What is strongly indicated by this fact? (1)
(iii) Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship forms of government. (2)
Answer:
(i) The economic outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figure analysis.
(ii) The given fact indicates that poorer sections are often ridden with unequal opportunities.
(iii) The differences between democracy and dictatorship form of government are
Democracy | Dictatorship |
In a democratic form of government, the head of the country is elected by the people in the form of votes through a general election. | In a dictatorship form of government the sole authority lies with one individual and no institution can keep a check over his powers. |
Political control is provided after completion of a fixed tenure. | elections didn’t take place in such forms of government as it restricts political parties and associations. |
Question 35.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Maharashtra is a state located in western India, with a population of over 110 million people. The state is home to several large cities, including Mumbai, and has a significant agricultural sector. However, the state is facing a severe water crisis, with its water resources coming under increasing pressure due to climate change, industrialization, and urbanization. The main challenges faced by water resource management in Maharashtra are:
(i) Overexploitation of groundwater Maharashtra is one of the most groundwater-stressed states in India, with the demand for water exceeding the supply. Overexploitation of groundwater for agriculture and urban use has led to a decline in water levels, which has severe implications for the sustainability of water resources.
(ii) Pollution of surface water: Industrialization and urbanization have led to the pollution of surface water bodies such as rivers and lakes. The pollution has led to water quality degradation, which poses risks to human health and the environment.
(iii) Inefficient irrigation practices: The agricultural sector is the largest user of water in Maharashtra, accounting for around 80% of total water use. However, traditional irrigation practices such as flood irrigation are inefficient and lead to the wastage of water.
Question 35.1.
Mention any one reason for the water crisis faced by the state of Maharashtra. [1]
Answer:
The reasons for the water crisis faced by Maharashtra are:
- Overexploitation of groundwater due to increasing demand for water.
- Pollution of surface water bodies due to industrialization and urbanization.
Question 35.2.
Propose any one solution to mitigate the water crisis faced by Maharashtra state. [1]
Answer:
Promoting the adoption of efficient irrigation practices, such as drip irrigation and sprinkler systems, which use less water and are more targeted can be one solution to mitigate the water crisis in Maharashtra. Rainwater harvesting systems can also be used by the state to further improve groundwater levels along the western side of the Western Chats.
Question 35.3.
Despite being the second-highest rainfall-receiving state of the country Maharashtra still faces a water crisis. Substantiate this statement in 40 words. [2]
Answer:
- Traditional irrigation leads to water shortages in Maharashtra, despite receiving the second-highest rainfall in the country.
- Flood irrigation uses excessive water, and the water is lost due to runoff. This leads to lower availability of water for other uses.
Question 36.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. On 31st January 1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The idea was to make the demands wide-ranging so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential items of focus. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production, Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.
Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by list March, the letter stated, Congress would launch a Civil Disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous Salt March accompanied by 7 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.
(i) Why salt was chosen as a symbol of protest? Why Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi’? (1+1)
(ii) Describe briefly the Salt or Dandi March undertaken by Mahatma Gandhi. (2)
Answer:
(i) Gandhiji chose salt as a symbol of protest as it was an indispensable commodity for every household and due to the imposition of existing high duty on ¡t, an excessive economic burden was laid on the common people. Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi because Viceroy Lord Irwin ignored the eleven demands presented by Gandhi ji including the abolition of Sail Law. Thus, this marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement with Gandhiji’s Salt March.
(ii) Gandhiji started the Salt March from his ashram in Sabarrnati to the coastal town of Dandi which was over 240 miles away. He was accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers and the march continued till 24 days. During the March, Gandhiji explained to the people regarding the Swaraj and urged them to defy the British laws, On reaching Dandi, he broke the Salt Law by manufacturing salt by boiling the seawater.
Section – F
Map Skill-Based Questions (2 + 3 = 5)
Question 37.
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. [2]
(a) Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(i) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1920.
(ii) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols. [3]
(i) A Coal mine in Tamil Nadu
(ii) A dam built on the river Chenab
(iii) A largest natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh
(iv) Noida Software Technology Park
Answer: