NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Animal Reproduction and Reproductive Health
1. Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system
(a) rete testis
(b) epididymis
(c) vasa efferentia
(d) isthmus
2. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by
I. Seminal vesicle II. Prostate III. Urethra IV. Bulbourethral gland
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and IV
3. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted by reproductive technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
4. Scrotal sac remains absent in
(a) whale
(b) elephant
(c) Echidna
(d) All of these
5. Orchidectomy is
(a) surgical removal of testes
(b) surgical removal of ovaries
(c) inflammation of testis
(d) non-descent of testes in scrotum
6. Which of the following is not correct about Leydig cells?
(a) Leydig cells are exocrine in nature
(b) Leydig cells are characteristic of testes of mammal
(c) Leydig cells remain absent in testis of frog
(d) Leydig cells secrete male hormone testosterone, which influences secondary sexual characters in male
7. Which of the following cells secrete a glycoprotein hormone called inhibin, which is involved in the negative feed back control of sperm production?
(a) Leydig cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Prostate gland
(d) Interstitial cells
8. Which of the following hormones play(s) essential role in spermatogenesis?
(a) Testosterone
(b) LH
(c) Oestrogens
(d) All of these
9. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Golgi complex of spermatid gives rise to acrosome
(b) Two centrioles are present in spermatozoa
(c) Mitochondria are absent in spermatozoa
(d) Spermatozoa consists of head, body and tail
10. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Sperms are not motile until they pass through the epididymis
(b) Sperms require capacitation in the female reproductive tract before they can fertilise an ovum
(c) A secondary oocyte does not complete meiotic division until it has been fertilised
(d) All of the above are true
11. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
(a) epididymis
(b) ejaculatory duct
(c) efferent ductule
(d) ureter
12. In mammals, failure of testis to descend into the scrotum is known as
(a) cryptorchidism
(b) castration
(c) impotency
(d) paedogenesis
13. A cross section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show
(a) centriole, mitochondria and 9 % 2 arrangement of microtubules
(b) centriole and mitochondria
(c) mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement
(d) 9+2 arrangement of microtubules only
14. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around
(a) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle
(b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(c) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle
(d) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle
15. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?
(a) Graafian follicle
(b) Stroma
(c) Germinal epithelium
(d) Vitelline membrane
16. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of
(a) LH only
(b) combination of FSH and LH
(c) combination of oestrogen and progesterone
(d) FSH only
17. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Average duration of menstrual cycle is 38 days
(b) Follicle is matured after 21 days
(c) A woman produces about 250 ova in her entire reproductive life span
(d) Generally, only one ovum is liberated in each menstrual cycle by alternate ovaries
18. After ovulation, Graafian follicle forms
(a) corpus arteria
(b) corpus luteum
(c) corpus albicans
(d) corpus callosum
19. The production of gametes, sperms and ova are called
(a) gametogenesis, spermatogenesis and oogenesis respectively
(b) spermatogenesis, gametogenesis and oogenesis respectively
(c) oogenesis, spermatogenesis and gametogenesis respectively
(d) meiosis, mitosis and amitosis respectively
20. Which of the following are diploid cells?
(a) Primary oocyte and primary spermatocyte
(b) Secondary oocyte and secondary spermatocyte
(c) Spermatid and egg
(d) Sperm and fertilised egg
21. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as
(a) FSH
(b) GH
(c) Prolactin
(d) LH .
22. In females, inhibin is secreted by
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Granulosa cells of ovarian follicles
(c) Leydig cells
(d) Cowper’s glands
23. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation?
(a) Oestrogens
(b) FSH
(c) FSH-RH
(d) Progesterone
24.Initial steps of oogenesis occurs
fa) prior to birth in 25 weeks old foetus ’
(b) during menstrual cycle
(c) during menopause
(d) during fertilisation
25. Corpus luteum secretes steroid hormone
(a) oestrogen
(b) progesterone
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) corpus albicans
26. Human egg is
(a) microlecithal
(b) mesolecithal
(c) macrolecithal
(d) alecithal
27. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are
(a) found in human ovaries
(b) a source of hormones
(c) characterised by a yellow colour
(d) contributory in maintaining pregnancy
28. Ovulation takes place in a month during
(a) 11-14 days
(b) 14-16 days
(c) 15-28 days
(d) 21-28 days
29. At menopause there is rise in urinary excretion of
(a) STH
(b) FSH
(c) LTH
(d) MSH
30. The female hormone that causes deposition of fat in the breasts and hips, as well as growth of pubic hair, during puberty is
(a) luteinizing hormone
(b) follicle-stimulating hormone
(c) oestrogen
(d) progesterone
31. The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is
(a) corona radiata
(b) zona radiata
(c) zona peliucida
(d) chorion
32. Main function of corpus luteum is to
(a) secrete progesterone
(b) facilitate ovulation
(c) facilitate fertilisation
(d) facilitate passage of ova in oviducts
33. A mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely?
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(b) Oestrogen secretion further decreases
(c) Primary follicle starts developing
(d) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
34. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to
(a) its contact with zona pellugida of the ova
(b) reactions within the uterine environment of the female
(c) reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
(d) androgens produced in the uterus
35. Choose the right one among the statements given below.
(a) lUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) lUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) lUDs once inserted need not be replaced
36. Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below.
I. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester.
II. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method.
III. MTPs are always surgical.
IV. MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
(a) II and III
(b) III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I and II
37. Fertilisation in mammals occurs in
(a) uterus
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) vagina
(d) cervix
38. Blastopore is the opening to the exterior of
(a) coelom
(b) caelenteron
(c) archenteron
(d) blastocoel
39. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) The embryo develops up to blastocyst stage in Fallopian tube *
(b) Fallopian tube conveys ovum from the ovary to the uterus through peristalsis
(c) Implantation takes place after 25 days of fertilisation
(d) Cowper’s glands are present in male mammals
40. The function of copper-T is to prevent
(a) fertilisation
(b) egg maturation
(c) ovulation
(d) implantation of blastocyst
41. Women, who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with
(a) no spleen
(b) hare-lip
(c) extra fingers and toes
(d) under developed limbs
42. Which of the following stages of spermatogenesis involves meiotic division?
(a) Multiplication stage
(b) Growth stage
(c) Maturation stage
(d) None of these
43. The differentiation of spermatids into spermatozoa is called
(a) spermatogenesis
(b) spermiogenesis
(c) spermatocytogenesis
(d) spermatids
44. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones?
(a) Lion, bat, whale and ostrich
(b) Platypus, penguin, bat and Hippopotamus
(c) Shrew, bat, cat and kiwi
(d) Kangaroo, heugehog, dolphin and Loris
45. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Fertilisin is present in the surface of egg
(b) Antifertilisin is present in the surface of spermatozoa
(c) Fertilisation between different species is prevented due to species specific reaction between fertilisin and antifertilisin
(d) Cleavage involves cell division with increase in growth
46. Foetus developing in the genital tract without getting nourishment from the mother is a case of
(a) vivipary
(b) ovipary
(c) ovovivipary
(d) None of these
47. Superficial meroblastic cleavage occurs in
(a) reptiles
(b) birds
(c) mammals
(d) insects
48. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Equal holoblastic — Marsupials cleavage
(b) Unequal holoblastic — Amphibians cleavage
(c) Meroblastic cleavage— Humans
(d) Radial cleavage — Synapta paracentrotums
49. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovarieetomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) castration
50. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below.
I. They are introduced into the uterus.
II. They are placed to cover the cervical region.
III. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.
IV. They act as spermicidal agents.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) III and IV
51. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
52. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation
53. Which of the following signalling molecules is responsible for erectile function?
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Nitric oxide
(c) Dopamine
(d) Carbon dioxide
54. Grey crescent is the area
(a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
(b) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
(c) at the animal pole
(d) at the vegetal pole
55. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation
56. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs
(a) syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) gonorrhea
(d) genital wart
57. Viagra (sildenafil citrate), which is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction acts by blocking the enzyme
(a) cGMP phosphodiesterase, which breakdowns cGMP
(b) cGMP phosphodiesterase, which synthesises cGMP
(c) ATPase, which breakdowns ATP
(d) ATPase, which synthesises ATP
58. Inflammation of the seminiferous tubules will interfere with its ability to
(a) produce’spermatozoa
(b) make semen alkaline
(c) secrete testosterone hormone
(d) eliminate urine from the body
59. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
(a) hGG
(b) Oestrogens
(c) Progesterone
(d) LH
60. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons
(a) these are effective barriers for insemination
(b) they do not interfere with coital act
(c) these help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) All of the above
61. The lytic enzymes released by sperm is
(a) acrosome
(b) ligase
(c) androgamone
(d) hyaluronidase
62. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is advised to females who
(a) cannot produce on ovum
(b) cannot retain foetus inside uterus
(c) have narrow cervical canal
(d) cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
Direction (Q. NOS. 63-66) In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
63. Assertion Gametes are formed In gonads.
Reason Gonads are haploid in nature.
64. Assertion Humans are dioecious:
Reason Earthworm is monoecious.
65. Assertion Semen is a collective product of the testes, seminal vesicles and prostate gland.
Reason Cowper’s glands, seminal vesicles and prostate gland constitute the accessary genital glands.
66. Assertion Sertoli cells are being involved in the process of spermatogenesis.
Reason Nutrition of developing sperm is provided by Sertoli cells.
67. Match the following columns.
Codes
ABCD ABCD
(a) 3 5 1 2 (b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 4 5 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
68. Match the following columns.
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 3 5
(o) 5 4 1 2 (d) 5 2 1 3
69.through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is
(a) Gamete inseminated Fallopian transfer
(b) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer
(c) Gamete internal fertilisation and transfer
(d) Germ cell internal Fallopian transfer
70. Which of these is hot an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
(a) Increase in oestrogen and progesterone ratio
(b) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(c) Release of oxytocin
(d) Release of prolactin
71. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(c) zygote into the uterus
(d) embryo with 16 balastomeres into the Fallopian tube
72. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
(a) prolonged dormancy
(b) new genetic combination leading to variation
(c) large biomass
(d) longer viability of seeds
73. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
(a) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid
(b) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid
(c) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(d) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozo
74. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of
(a) FSH
(b) oxytocin
(c) vasopressin
(d) progesterone
75. One of the legal methods of birth control is
(a) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(b) by having coitus at the time of day break
(c) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
(d) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
76. Artificial insemination mean
(a) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(b) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(c) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(d) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
77. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(a) Sex of the foetus
(b) Down syndrome
(c) Jaundice
(d) Klinefelter syndrome
78. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It
(a) secretes oestrogen
(b) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo
(c) secretes oxytocin during parturition
(d) fecilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo
79. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
(a) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 h
(b) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium
(c) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility
(d) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension
80. The test-tube baby programme employs, which one of the following techniques?
(a) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
(b) Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)
81. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was
(a) high level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
(b) high level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
(c) high levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
(d) high level of circulating HCG to stimulate oestrogen and progesterone synthesis
82. What is the figure given below showing in particular?
(a) Ovarian cancer
(b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy
(d) Vasectomy
83. Signals for parturition originate from
(a) both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(b) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(c) placenta unly
(d) fully developed foetus only
84. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present?
(a) Tubectomy
(b) Diaphragm
(c) lUDs (Intra Uterine Devices)
(d) Cervical caps
85. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of A-F have been correctly identified?
(a) C-Infundibulum, D-Fimbriae, E-Cervix
(b) D-Oviducal funnel, E-Uterus, F-Cervix
(c) A-Perimetrium, B-Myometriurti, C-Fallopian tube
(d) B-Endometrium, C-Infundibulum, D-Fimbriae
86. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for
(a) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
(b) providing more space for the growth of epididymis
(c) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
(d) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
87. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the Fallopian tube
(a) Embryo only, up to 8-cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8-ceil stage
(c) Embryo of 32-cell stage
(d) Only zygote
88. Sertoli cells are found in
(a) ovaries and secrete progesterone
(b) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(c) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
(d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
89. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(a) testicular lobules to rete testis
(b) rete testis to vas deferens
(c) vas deferens to epididymis
(d) epididymis to urethra
90. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in
(a) fructose and calcium
(b) glucose and calcium
(c) DNA and testosterone
(d) ribose and potassium
91. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (lUDs)
(a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
(c) suppress sperm motility
(d) prevent ovulation
92. Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolves the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function
Answers :