NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Biology and Human Welfare
1. Flit is used for the large scale on control of malaria. The main constituent of flit is
(a) malathion
(b) atrazine
(c) aldrin
(d) dialdrin
2. Which one of the following correctly matches the Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) with its pathogen?
3. Diphtheria is caused by
(a) poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue
(b) poisons released from dead bacterial cells into the host tissue
(c) poisons released by virus into the host tissues
(d) excessive immune response by the host’s body
4. Both sickle-cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are
(a) bacteria-related diseases
(b) congenital diseases
(c) pollutant- induced diseases
(d) virus-related diseases
5. Quinine is an antimalarial drug, which is obtained from the bark of
(a) Papaver somniferum
(b) Cinchona officinale
(c) Plantago ovata
(d) Atropa belladonna
6. Cerebral malaria is caused by
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Plasmodium malariae
(d) Plasmodium falciparum
7. Chaga’s disease is caused by
(a) Trypanosoma gambiense
(b) Leishmania donovani
(c) Trypanosoma cruzi
(d) Trichinella spiralis
8. When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that
(a) the patient was not efficient at his work
(b) the patient was not economically prosperous
(c) the patient shows behavioural and social malad adjustment
(d) he does not take interest in sports
9. Ringworm is due to the infection of
(a) algae
(b) fungi
(c) bacteria
(d) viruses
10. Which of the following is not a viral disease?
(a) Polio
(b) Rabies
(c) Smallpox
(d) Plague
11. Gonorrhoea, is a STD caused by
(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(b) Coryneacterium diphtheriae
(c) Neisseria-gonorrhoeae
(d) Clostridrium tetani
12. Disease associated with secretion of toxin is
(a) tetanus
(b) TB
(c) food poisoning
(d) AIDS
13. Streptomycin was first isolated by
(a) A Fleming
(b) SA Waksman
(c) Paul Vuillemin
(d) Howard Florey
14. Haemozoin is
(a) a precursor of haemoglobin
(b) a toxin from Streptococcus
(c) a toxin from Plasmodium species
(d) a toxin from Haemophilus species
15. The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being are formed in
(a) Liver of human
(b) RBCs of mosquito
(c) salivary glands of mosquito
(d) intestine of human
16. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with
(a) no spleen
(b) hare-lip
(c) extra fingers and toes
(d)under developed limbs
17. In malign human rapidly and move to otner part, new tumours. This stage of disease is called
(a) metagenest
(b) metastasis
(c) teratogenesis
(d) mitosis
18. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain sea&&f$ are related to
(a) hot and humid environment
(b) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(c) inhalation of seasonal pollen
(d) low temperature
19. HIV.that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
(a) B-lymphocytes
(b) leucocytes
(c) thrombocytes
(d) helper T-lymphocytes
20. Immunodeficiency makes a person highly susceptible to infection. It is caused by
(a) lack of B-cells
(b) lack of T-cells
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
21. Allergy is usually caused by the spores of
(a) Puccinia
(b) Alternaria
(c) Cladosporium
(d) Albugo
22. An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as
(a) histamine and dopamine
(b) histamine and kinins
(c) interferons and opsonin :
(d) interferons and histones
23. BCG vaccine is used against
(a) TB
(b) leprosy
(c) food poisoning
(d) None of these
24. A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and’ conflicts with others is suffering from
(a) schizophrenia
(b) Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)
(c) mood disorders
(d) addictive disorders
25. Narcotics include
(a) Papaver
(b) Nicotiana
(c) Datura
(d) Rauwolfia
26. Brown sugar is
(a) theophylline
(b) lorazepam
(c) methedrine
(d) diacetyl morphine hydrochloride
27. Ergot is obtained from
(a) Agaricus
(b) Claviceps
(c) Commiphora
(d) Ephedra
28. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by
(a) cocaine
(b) alcohol
(c) LSD
(d) morphine
29. LSD is formed from
(a) Cannabis
(b) Claviceps
(c) Fusarium
(d) Nostoc
30. Fatty liver syndrome is due to excessive intake of
(a) morphine
(b) tobacco
(c) alcohol
(d) Both (b) and (c)
31. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness?
(a) Valium
(b) Morphine
(c) Hashish
(d) Amphetamines
32. Penicillin was the first antibiotic made by Alexander Fleming from
(a) Penicillium chrysogenum
(b) Penicillium notatum
(c) Streptococcus thermophilus
(d) Penicillium roqueforti
33. An antibiotic that acts on a variety of pathogenic organisms is called
(a) broad spectrum antibiotic
(b) narrow spectrum antibiotic
(c) Gram positive antibiotic
(d) Gram negative antibiotic
34. Bordeaux mixture (CuS04 + Ca(OH)2 + H20) is a fungicide. It was discovered by
(a) Dr. BP Pal
(b) MS Swaminathan
(c) Millardet
(d) Pushkar Nath
35. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are
(a)n = 7 and x = 21
(b)n = 21 and x = 21
(c)n= 21 and x = 14
(d)n= 21 and x = 7
36. Which of the following is not a organophosphate?
(a) Aldrin
(b) Parathion
(c) Fenitrothion
(d)Trithion
37. The group of pesticides that is derived from urea is
(a) carbamates such as carbafuron, aldicrab, propoxur, etc
(b) triazines such as atrazine, simazine, etc
(c) organophosphates such as malathion, parathion etc
(d) organochlorines such as BHC, DDT, etc
38. Which of the following is not a harmful effect of pesticides?
(a) The mode of action of pesticides is non-selective
(b) Non-biodegradable pesticides cause biological magnification
(c) Excessive and prolonged use of pesticides lead to pesticide treadmill
(d) Pesticides coiitrOl vectors or carriers of different disease producing drjganisms
39. A Russian plant breeder, who gave centres of origin of cultivated planters
(a) NE Borlaug
(b) Ni Vavilov
(c) Gurdev S Khush
(d) MS Swaminathan
40. NE Borlaug, who is known as ‘Father of Green Revolution’ as he developed
(a) high yielding semi-dwarf varieties like Sonora-64, Lerma Rojo, etc
(b) Sharbati Sonora and Pusa Lerma varieties of wheat by mutation
(c) Aruna variety of castor
(d) Penicillin from Penicillium notatum and Penicillium chrysogenum
41. Aswagandha is obtained from
(a) Aconitum napellus
(b) Atropa belladonna
(c) Rauwolfia serpentina
(d) Withania somnifera
42. Carbamate pesticides acts by combining with acetylcholine esterase enzyme. Which one of the following is a carbamate?
(a) Propoxur (baygon)
(b) Aldicarb (temik)
(c) Carbofuran (furadan)
(d) All of these
43. Which of the following will vanish in the absence of human help?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Potato
44. Explant is
(a) plant collected after harvesting
(b) exploited part of a plant
(c) small part of the plant meant for tissue culture
(d) uprooted for transplantation
45. In which one of the following combinations (a-d) of the number of the chromosomes is the present day
hexaploid wheat correctly represented?
46. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by
(a) removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released
(b) treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins
(c) raising the plants from vernalised seeds
(d) treating the plants with phenylmereuric acetate
47. Crop plants grown in monoculture are
(a) low in yield
(b) free from intraspecific competition
(c) characterised by poor root system
(d) highly prone to pests
48. Haploid production through pollen culture was first made by Guha and Maheswari by using
(a) Datura innoxia
(b)solaum melongena
(c) Solanum tuberosum
(dj)Mangifera indica
49. Which of the following is used in tissue culture for production of disease free plants?
(a) Shoot meristem
(b) Lateral meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) None of these
50. Haploid plant cultures are got from
(a) leaves
(b) root tip
(c) pollen grain
(d) buds
51. Clonal cell lines are obtained from
(a) tissue culture
(b) tissue fractionation
(c) tissue homogenisation
(d) tissue system
52. Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?
(a) Salmonellosis
(b) Coryza
(c) New castle disease
(d) Pasteurellosis
53. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(a) Pita globosa — Pearl
(b) Apis indica — Honey
(c) Kenia lacca — Lac
(6) Bombyx mori — Silk
54. Hypophysation is done in major crops to
(a) increase size
(b) increase their growth
(c) cause breeding in fisheries
(d) increase their palatibility
55. Zebu is
(a) Bos indicus
(b)Gallus gallus
(c) Bubalus bubalus
(d)Bombyx mori
56. Which of the following India from England?
(a) Osphronemus goramy
(b)Tinca tinca
(c) Carassius carassius
(d)Cyprinus carpio
57. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Eel — Anguilla
(b) Malli — Wallago attu
(c) Calbasu — Labeo rohita
(d) Pomphret — Stromateus
58. Highest milk-yielding breed of cattle in the world is
(a) Brown Jersey
(b) Ongole
(c) Holstein-Friesian
(d) Hallikar
59. Hybrid breed of cattle is
(a) Sunandini
(b) Holstein
(c) Brown Swiss
(d) Kankrej
60. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine
61. The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is
(a) sheep
(b) goat
(c) goat and sheep cross
(d) Kashmir sheep and Afghan sheep cross
62. Crosses involving the plants of the same varieties are
(a) intravarietal
(b) interspecific
(c) intervarietal
(d) intrageneric
63. The first bioherbicide was
(a) collego
(b) devine
(c) sporeine
(d) pyrethrin
64. Which of the following bioherbicide is being used to control milk weed vines in Citrus orchards?
(a) Phytophthora palmivora
(b) Morrenia odorata
(c) Colletotrichum gioeosporioides
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis
65. Prickly pear cactus (Opuntia) in Australia and India was effectively controlled by the larvae of
(a) cochineal insect (Cactoblastis cactorum)
(b) screw worm (Cochlimyia hominivorax)
(c) fluted scale insect (Icerya purchasi)
(d) Gambusia fish
66. Which of the following is not a natural insecticide?
(a) Rotenone obtained from roots of Derris sp.
(b) Azadirachtin obtained from neem
(c) Cinerin obtained from Chrysanthemum
(d) Devine obtained from Phytophthora palmivora
67. Pheromones are useful in
(a) insect control
(b) weed control
(c) fungi control
(d) None of these
68. The biofertiliser, which is inoculated in rice fields in South-Eastern Asia, which is found to increase yield up to 50%, is
(a) Anabaena cycadaceae present symbiotically in Cycas roots
(b) Nostoc punctaeformae found symbiotically in Anthoceros thallus
(c) Anabaena azollae present symbiotically in the leaves of water fern Azolla
(d) Symbiotic association between roots of higher plants and fungal hyphae
69. Which of the following crops is being,gfown in India for biodiesel?
(a) Chtamydomonas
(b) Jatropha
(c) Euphorbia
(d) Capaifera
70. The vitamin whose content increasesrfollowing the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria is
(a) vitamin-C
(b) vitamin-D
c) vitamin-B12
fd) vitamin-E
71. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for
(a) killing insects
(b) biological control of plant diseases
(c) controlling butterfly caterpillars
(d) producing antibiotics
72. Green manure plant belongs to
(a) Compositae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Poaceae
(d) Leguminosae
73. Which one of is a neem product used as insect, repellant?
(a) Rotenone
(b) Azadirachtin
(c) Parathion
(d) Endrin
74. Pulses, lacks amino acids are
(a) methionine and tryptophan
(b) methionine and cysteine
(c) cysteine and tryptophan
(d) methionine and tryptophan
75. Who is credited with identifying petro-crops?
(a) Swaminathan
(b) Calvin
(c) Krebs
(d) Borlaug
76. Ethyl alcohol is commercially manufactured by using
(a) bajra
(b) grapes
(c) maize
(d) sugarcane
77. Mycoplasma is not affected by penicillin as it lacks
(a) cell wall
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) ribosomes
(d) DNA and RNA
78. Which of the following is a marine fish?
(a) Sardines
(b) Mackerel
(c) Pomfrets
(d) All of these
79. The aquatic fern, which is an excellent biofertiliser is
(a) Salvinia
(b) Azolla
(c) Marsilea
(d) Pteridium
80. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(a) Methanogens — Gobar gas
(b) Yeast — Ethanol
(c) Streptomycetes — Antibiotic
(d) Conforms — Vinegar
81. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by a certain species of (a) Azotobacter
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Penicillium
82. Which of the following beverages have highest percentage of alcohol?
(a) Beer
(b) Wine
(c) Brandy
(d) Rum
83. Herbicides acts usually by
(a) blocking photosystem-l
(b) blocking photosystem-ll
(c) blocking xylem vessels
(d) blocking phloem channels
84. The enzyme, which is used in cheese making is
(a) lactase
(b) protease
(c) renninr
(d) pepsin
85. In yoghurt making, pasteurised homogenised milk is inoculated with
(a) Streptococcus thermophilus
(b) Lactobacillus,bulgaricus
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
86. Vitamin-B2 (riboflavin) is obtained on large scale from the fungus
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Ashbya gossypii
(c) Rhizopus stolonifer
(d) Penicillium purpurogenum
87. Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can
(a) be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank
(b) absorb pathogenic bacteria present in water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank
(c) be discarded and anaerobically digested
(d) absorb colloidal organic matter
88. Gallic acid used in ink making is obtained with the help of
(a) Aspergillus niger
(b) Acetobacter aceti
(c) Ashbya gossypii
(d) Rhizopus stolonifer
89. Gluconic acid is manufactured with the help of
(a) Aspergillus niger
(b) Penicillium purpurogenum
(c) Streptococcus lactis
(d) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
90. Lactic acid was the first acid to be produced by fermentation. Which of the following is used in lactic acid production?
(a) Streptococcus lactis
(b) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(c) Rhizopus sp.
(d) All of these
91. Which one of the following groups of microorganisms is responsible for the formation and flavour of yoghurt?
(a) Lactobacillus easel and Streptococcus thermophilus
(b) Rhizobium meliloti and Azotobacter
(c) Bacillus subtilis and E. coli
(d) None of the above
92. The term ‘humulin’ is used for
(a) human insulin synthesised using rDNA
(b) isoenzyme
(c) chemically synthesised hormone
(d) human antibodies
93. Which of the following is a group of free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria?
(a) Nostoc, Anabaena and Aulosira
(b) Azotobacter and Clostridium
(c) Rhizobium leguminosarum and Azospirillum
(d) All of the above
94. Match the following columns.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
95. Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in
(a) Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
(b) Increasing its tolerance to drought
(c) Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
(d) Increasing its resistance to insects
96. Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by a
(a) a machine
(b) a bacterium that produces methane gas
(c) a bacterium producing a large amount of cabon dioxide
(d) a fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabolic activities
97. Which of the following plant is being used to obtain recombinant hirudin, an anticoagulant protein?
(a) Brassica hapus
(b) Solatium tuberosum
(c) Martgifera indica
(d) Saccharum officinarum
Direction (Q. Nos. 98-103) In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
98. Assertion Mast cells in the human body release excessive amount of inflammatory chemicals, which cause allergic reactions.
Reason Allergens in the environment on reacting with the human body stimulate mast cells in certain individual.
99. Assertion Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been chlorinated.
Reason Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides.
100. Assertion Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal diseases.
Reason Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.
101. Assertion LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.
Reason Both these drugs suppress brain function.
102.AssertionIn plant tissue culture,somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell.
Reason Any viable plant cell can differentiate into somatic embryos.
103. Assertion Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria.
Reason Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.
104. Match the following columns.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 5 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
106. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feed upon
(a) erythrocytes mucosa and submucosa of colon
(b) mucosa and submucosa
(c) food in intestine
(d) Only blood
107. Which of the following protozoan?
(a) Syphilis
(b)influenza
(c) Babesiosis
(d)Blastomycosis
108. Which one of the hallucinogens?
(a) Morchella esculents
(b)Amanita muscaria
(c) Neurospora sp.
(d)Ustilago sp
109. During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include
(a) methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide
(b) hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide
(c) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane
(d) methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide
110. Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
(a) Humification – leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at every fast rate
(b) Catabolism – Last step decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
(c) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the too layers of soil
(d) Fragmentation – Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
111. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
(a) eating imperfectly cooked pork
(b) tse-tse fly
(c) mosquito bite
(d) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
112. Widal test is carried out to test
(a) malaria
(b) diabetes mellitus
(c) HIV/AIDS
(d) typhoid fever
113. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shows symptoms of AIDS?
(a) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
(b) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these
(c) With 15 day of sexual contact with an infected person
(d) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
114. The Genetically Modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for
(a) insect-resistance
(b) enhancing self life
(c) enhancing mineral content
(d) drought resistance
Answers :
