NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Biotechnology Principles and its Applications
1. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by a certain species of
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Penicillium
2. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because
(a) these are small circular DNA molecules, which can ‘ integrate with host chromosomal DNA
(b) these are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication at,origin site
(c) these can shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(d) these often carry antibiotic resistance genes
3. Which of the following enzymes is used to join sugar phosphate backbone of DNA?
(a) Restriction endonuclease
(b) fcxonuclease enzyme
(c) DNA ligase
(d) Topoisomerase enzyme
4. The DNA fragment used to detect the targeted DNA, is called
(a) DNA chip
(b) DNA probe
(c) gel electrophoresis
(d) PCR
5. The technique used for detecting specific target DNA sequences in genes, is called
(a) Eastern blotting
(b) Western blotting
(c) Southern blotting
(d) Northern blotting
6. Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are
(a) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(d) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
7. In which of the following techniques, DNA probes can be hybridised with RNA fragments
(a) Eastern blotting
(b) Western blotting
(c) Southern blotting
(d) Northern blotting
8. The first restriction endonuclease was isolated by
(a) Nathans and Smith
(b) Temin and Baltimore
(c) Maxam and Gilbert
(d) Sanger and Coulson
9. Electroporation is used for
(a) increasing uptake of plasmids by bacteria or animal cells
(b) DNA replication
(c) RNA replication –
(d) to carry DNA into plant cells
10. The flow chart given below represents the process of recombinant technology. Identify A to D.
(a) A-Restriction endonuclease B-Restriction exonuclease ’C-RNA ligase D-Transformation
(b) A-Restriction exonuclease B-Restriction endonuclease C-DNA polymerase D-Transformation
(c) A-Restriction exonuclease B-Restriction endonuclease C-DNA polymerase D-Transformation
(d) A-Restriction exonuclease B-Restriction endonuclease C-DNA ligase D-Transformation
11. Which of the following is not required in the preparation of a recombinant DNA molecules?
(a) Restriction endonucleases
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA fragments
(d) E. coli
12. Gene targeting is commonly, called as
(a) knockout technology
(b) recombinant DNA technology
(c) polymerase chain reaction
(d) None of the above
13. Genomic DNA library means
(a) collection of literature about DNA
(b) collection of organism for extracting DNA
(c) packing of donor in a collection of vectors
(d) collection of gene vectors
14. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?
(a)DNA can be seen in visible light
(b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
15. Which enzyme is useful in genetic engineering?
(a) DNAase
(b) Amylase
(c) Lipase
(d) Restriction endonuclease
16. Which is related to genetic engineering?
(a) Plastid
(b) Plasmid
(c) Heterosis
(d) Mutation
17. Enzyme required for Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(a) RNA polymerase
(b) ribonuclease
(c) taq polymerase
(d) endonuclease
18. Natural genetic engineer is
(a) Pseudomonas putida
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Bacillus subtilis
19. Arber, Smith and Nathans are famous for the discovery of
(a) gene therapy
(b) restriction enzyme
(c) humulin
(d) second generation vaccines
20. Choose the correct option regarding retrovirus
(a) An RNA virus that can synthesise DNA during infection
(b) A DNA virus that can synthesise RNA during infection
(c) A ssDNA virus
(d) A dsRNA virus
21. Identify the following diagrams A and B and select the correct option.
(a) A-Simple stirred-tank bioreactor [NCERT Exemplar] B-Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor
(b) A-Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor B-Complex stirred-tank bioreactor
(c) A-Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor B-Simple stirred-tank bioreactor
(d) A-Simple s§V6d-tank bioreactor B-Complex stirred-tank bioreactor
22. Identify and match the labelled items A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the diagram below from the list l-VII given With components.
I. DNA polymerase
II. Plasmid
III. Plasmid with ‘sticky ends’
IV. DNA ligase
V. Restriction endonuclease
VI. Recombinant DNA
VII. Reverse transcriptase
The correct components are
A B C D E F G
(a) VII I II V III IV VI
(b) II III I IV V VI VII
(c) I II III IV V VI VII
(d) None of the above
23. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
(a) bombarding the seeds with DNA
(b) crossing of two inbred parental lines
(c) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
(d) inducing mutations
24. In order to obtain virus free plants through tissue culture the best method is
(a) protoplast culture
(b) embryo rescue
(c) anther culture
(d) meristem culture
25. Torulopsis utilis is
(a) a food yeast
(b) an important intestinal commensal
(c) emploid for synthesis of citric acid
(d) a microorganism, which yields third generation vaccine
26. Part of the plant, which is cultured to obtain virus free clones is
(a) leaf
(b) root tip
(c) shoot Tip
(d) embryo
27. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used from designing novel
(a) biometallurgical technique
(b) biomineralisation processes
(c) bioinsecticidal plants
(d) biofertilisers
28. First genetically modified plants commercially released in India is
(a) golden rice
(b) slow ripening tomato
(c)Bfbrinjal
(d) Bf cotton
29. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
(a) bombarding the seeds with DNA
(b) crossing of two inbred parental lines
(c) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
(d) inducing mutations
30. The concept of totipotency was given by
(a) Steward
(b) Haberlandt
(c) Guha
(d) Maheshwari
31. Which one of the following is the most suitable medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster?
(a) Moist bread
(b) Agar-agar
(c) Ripe banana
(d) Cow dung
32. An intergeneric hybrid pomato is a somatic hybrid between
(a) potato and brinjal
(b) potato and tomato
(c) tomato and tamarind
(d) tomato and Brassica
33. Somatic hybridisation is the fusion of two protoplasts by Polyethylene Glycol (PEG). The separation of protoplast is done by treating cells with
(a) nuclease and ligase enzymes
(b) pectinase and cellulase enzymes
(c) maltase and sucrase enzymes
(d) exonuclease and endonuclease enzymes
34. Bioenergy is obtained from
(a) petroleum
(b) natural gas
(c) biomass
(d) synthetic fuel
35. Bt gene, which produces protein toxic to insect larvae
(a) Cry
(b) cry
(c) Try
(d) trp
36. Somaclonal variation is seen in
(a) tissue culture grown plants
(b) apomicts
(c) polyploids
(d) vegetatively propagated plants
37. Golden rice is a
(a) vitamin-A rich transgenic rice
(b) vitamin-B., rich transgenic rice
(c) vitamin-C rich transgenic rice
(d) vitamin-D rich transgenic rice
38. Bt cotton is a transgenic plant having Bf-gene derived from
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Bacillus tuberculosis
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes
39. The first transgenic plant produced was
(a) tobacco (Nicotiana tobacum)
(b) cotton (Gossypium sp.) v
(c) potato (Solanum tuberosum)
(d) tomato (Lycopersicon esculentum)
40. The enzyme Tissue Plasmogen Activator (TPA) is used for
(a) cheese formation
(b) rennet formation
(c) dissolving blood clots
(d) breakdown of fat
41. Hybridoma technology for the production . of monoclonal antibodies was developed by
(a) Waksman and Woodruff
(b) Ceasar Milstein and Georges Kohler
(c) Adward Jenner and Louis Pasteur
(d) Paven and Perroz
42. Monoclonal antibodies are used in
(a) pregnancy testing
(b) diagnosis of disease
(c) preventing rejection of transplants
(d) All of the above
43.Hybridomas, are the fusion product of
(a) normal antibody producing cell with myeloma
(b) abnormal antibody producing cell with myeloma
(c) sex cells with myeloma
(d) bone cells with myeloma
44.Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because
(a) bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
(b) the human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
(c) the mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans are bacteria
(d) the genetic code is universal
45.Genetically engineered bacteria are used for production of
(a) human insulin
(b) cortisone
(c) epinephrine
(d) thyroxine
46.ELISA test, is used to detect
(a) hay fever
(b)AIDS
(c) tetanus
(d) tuberculosis
47.The Nobel Prize 2007, in physiology in medicine was awarded to
(a) Mario R Capecchi
(b) Oliver Smithes
(c) Martin J Evans
(d) All of these
48.Nobel Prize (2007) in physiology in medicine was awarded for
(a) gene targeting in mice
(b) DNA sequence in mice
(c) gene sequencing in mice
(d) cloning of mice
49.In RNAi, genes are silenced using
(a) ssDNA
(b) dsDNA
(c) dsRNA
(d) ssRNA
50.If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
(a) Serum albumins
(b) Serum globulins
(c) Fibrinogen in the plasma
(d) Haemocytes
51.a-1 antitrypsin is
(a) an antacid
(b) an enzyme
(c) used to treat arthritis
(d) used to treat emphysema
52.Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in commercial production of (a) melatonin (c) human insulin Transgenic potato can be
(a) Flavrsavr
(b) human serum albumin
(c) hirudin
(d) None of the abvoe
54. In cloning of cattle, a fertilised egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and
(a) the egg is divided into four pairs of cells, which are implanted into the womb of other cows
(b) in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed, which are implanted into the womb of other cows
(c) in the eight cell stage, the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media
(d) from this, up to eight identical twins can be produced
55. The first clone generated from a fully differentiated animal cell by K Campbell and Wilmut was
(a) Polly
(b) Dolly
(c) Andy
(d) Molly
56. When breeding is done between animals of the same breed. It is called
(a) inbreeding
(b) outbreeding
(c) inbreeding depression
(d) homozygosity
57. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(b) Crosses between different breeds are called outbreeding
(c) Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams
(d) Inbreeding depression increases the fertility and productivity
58. A regulatory body working under MoEF for the release of transgenic crop is
(a) NBPGR
(b) GEAC
(c) NSC
(d) NIPGR
59. The organism, which is mostly used as bioweapon is
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas putlda
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) None of these
60. GEAC stands for
(a) Genome Engineering Action Committee
(b) Ground Environment Action Committee
(c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(d) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee
61. The first hormone produced artificially by culturing bacteria is
(a) insulin
(b) thyroxine
(c) testosterone.
(d) adrenaline
Direction (Q. Nos. 62-66) In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
62. Assertion In recombinant DNA. technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population, wich expresses the desired i gene.
63. Assertion Genetic engineering overcomes the drawbacks of traditional hybridisation.
Reason Genetic engineering involves creation of I recombinant DNA and introduces the desirable genesinto the target organisms.
64. Assertion Flavr savr, a trans genic tomato remains fresh and retains its flavour for long time.
Reason Production of polygalacturonase enzymes, which degrades pectin was blocked in Flavr savr.
65. Assertion In plant tissue culture, somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell.
Reason Any viable plant cell can differentiate into somatic embryos.
66. Assertion Transgenic plant production is an application of plant tissue culture.
Reason An organism that contains and expresses a transgene is called transgenic organism.
67. Match the following columns.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 5
68. Match the following columns.
Codes
ABCD
(a) 2 3 1 5
(b) 5 2 1 4
(c) 4 12 3
(d) 2 4 5 1
69. Match the following columns.
Codes
ABCD ABCD
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 5 4 2 1 (d) 2 3 4 5
70. The site of production of ADA in the body is
(a) bone marrow
(b) lymphocytes
(c) blood plasma
(d) monocytes
71. A protoxin is
(a) a primitive toxin
(b) a denatured toxin .
(c) toxin produced by Protozoa
(d) inactive toxin
72. The cutting of DNA at specific locations becamepossible with the discovery of
(a) restriction enzymes
(b) probes
(c) selectable markers
(d) ligases
73. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterised by
(a) PCR and RAPD
(b) Northern blotting
(c) Electrophoresis and HPLC
(d) Microscopy
74. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense mutation in the lac Y gene?
(a) Lactose permease
(b) Transacetylase
(c) Lactose permease and transacetylase
(d) p-galactosidase
75. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?
(a) Cotton
(b) Brinjal
(c) Soyabean
(d) Maize
76. A good producer of citric acid is
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Clostridium
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Aspergillus
77. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by
(a) polymerase chain reaction
(b) electrophoresis
(c) restriction mapping
(d) centrifugation
78. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of
(a) insertions! inactivation of a-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
(b) insertional inactivation of a-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(c) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant , bacteria
(d) non-recombinant bacteria containing p-galactosidase
79. Artificial insemination mean
(a) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(b) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(c) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(d) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
80. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E. coli vector pBR322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain components(s)?
(a) Ori—original restriction enzyme
(b) rop—reduced osmotic pressure
(c) Hind III, EGO Rl—selectable markers
(d) ampR, tetR — antibiotic resistance genes
81. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the method for
(a) study of enzymes
(b) genetic transformation
(c) DNA sequencing
(d) genetic fingerprinting
82. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?
(a) Somatic hybridisation — Fusion of two diverse cells
(b) Vector DNA — Site for tRNA synthesis
(c) Micropropagation — In vitro production of plants in large numbers
(d) Callus — Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture
83. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells
(b) It serves as a selectable marker
(c) It is isolated from a virus
(d) It remains active at high temperature
84. Continuous addition of sugars in ’fed batch’ fermentation is done to
(a) obtain antibiotics
(b) purify enzymes
(c) degrade sewage
(d) produce methane
85. DNA or RNA segment, tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(a) vector
(b) probe
(c) clone 4
(d) plasmid
Answers :
