NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Organisms and Ecosystem
1. Ecotone is
(a) a polluted area
(b) the bottom of a lake
(c) a zone of transition between two communities
(d) a zone of developing community
2. Autecology is the
(a) relation of a population to its environment
(b) relation of an individual to its environment
(c) relation of a community to its environment
(d) relation of a biome to its environment
3. The factor governing the structure of earth’s surface is
(a) topographic
(b) biotic
(c) edaphic
(d) temperature
4. The ‘niche’ of a species is meant for the
(a) specific place, where an organism lives
(b) specific function of a specieS-and its competitive power
(c) habitat and specific functions of a species
(d) None of the above
5. Niche overlap indicates
(a) active cooperation between two species
(b) two different parasites on the same host
(c) sharing of one or more resources between the two species
(d) mutualism between two species
6. The term ‘ecosystem’ was coined by
(a) Odum
(b) Reiter
(c) Ernst Haeckel
(d)Tansley
7. Which one of the following correctly represents an organism and its ecological niche?
(a) Vallisneria and pond
(b) Desert locust (Sdistocerca) and desert
(c) Plant lice (aphids) and leaf
(d) Vultures and dense forest
8. In which one of the following pairs is the specific characteristic of soil not correctly matched?
(a) Laterite — Contains aluminium compound
(b) Terra rossa — Most suitable for roses
(c) Chernozems — Richest soil in the world
(d) Black soil — Rich in calcium carbonate
9. An ecosystem, which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience
10. The factor which does not determine the population size is
(a) mortality
(b) emigration
(c) migration
(d) immigration
11. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of
(a) biotic community
(b) population
(c) landscape
(d) ecosystem
12. According to Allen’s rule, the mammals from colder climate have
(a) shorter ears and longer limbs
(b) longer ears and shorter limbs
(c) longer ears and longer limbs
(d) shorter ears and shorter limbs
13. Choose thescprrdct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteiita
(a) lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(b) lag, log, stationary phase
(c) stationary, lag, log, decline phase
(d) decline, lag, log, phase
14. Population size, in an area tends to increase on account of
(a) emigration
(b) mortality
(c) migration
(d) natality
15. Critical minimum and maximum values of an environmental factor is called as
(a) limiting factor
(b) law of minimum
(c) limits of tolerance
(d) carrying capacity
16. The formula for exponential population growth is
(a) dt/dN = rN
(b) dN/rN = dt
(c) rN/dN = dt
(d) dN/dt = rN
17. The percentage ratio of natality over mortality is
(a) population dynamics
(b) vital index
(c) population of density
(d) total count
18. From the given graph of population growth select the correct option having correct value of from bar graph.
19.The maximum growth rate occurs in
(a) stationary phase
(b) senescent phase
(c) lag phase
(d) exponential phase
20. If a population of 50 Paramecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the growth rate of population?
(a) 50 per hour
(b) 200 per hour
(c) 5 per hour
(d)100 per hour
21. Population of individuals belonging to same genetic stock differing markedly in vegetative characteristics are
(a) flora
(b) ecotype
(c) ecotones
(d) ecads
22. The population of an insect-nspecies shows an explo’sive increase in number daring rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
(a) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
(b) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
(c) Its population growth curve is of J-type
(d) The population of its predators increases enormously
23. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
(a) mutualism
(b) intraspecific competition
(c) interspecific competition
(d) predation on one another
24. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Rhizobium — Parasite in the roots of leguminous plants
(b) Mycorrhizae — Mineral uptake from soil
(c) Yeast — Production of biogas
(d) Myxomycetes — The disease ringworm
25. Praying mentis is a good example of
(a) Mullerian mimicry
(b) warning colouration
(c) social insects
(d) camouflage
26. In commensalism
(a) both partners are harmed
(b) weaker partner is benefitted
(c) both partners are benefitted
(d) None of the partners is benefitted
27. Biosphere is
(a) a component in the ecosystem
(b) composed of the plants present in the soil
(c) life in the outer space
(d) composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact with the physical environment
28. A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be the status of the population after some years?
(a) It will decline
(b) It will stabilise
(c) It will increase
(d) It will first decline and then stabilise
29. There is more competition for survival between
(a) different animals of same niche
(b) same animals of same niche
(c) different animals of different niche
(d) same animals of different niche
30. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation approximately equals heat loss through terrestrial radiation?
(a) 66° North and South
(b) 22 1/2° North and South
(c) 40° North and South
(d) 42 1/2 ° North and South
31. A layer of soil profile is rich in
(a) minerals
(b) humus
(c) litter
(d) None of these
32. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus, where fungus has
(a) a parasitic relationship with the alga
(b) a symbiotic relationship with the alga
(c) an epiphytic relationship with the alga
(d) a saprophytic relationship with the alga
33. Acclimatisation is
(a) introduction
(b) pure line breeding .
(c) pure line selection
(d) adaptation to new environment
34. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called
(a) fragmentation
(b) stratification
(c) decomposition
(d) humification
35. Age pyramid A, B and C indicates.
(a) A-Expanding population, B-Stable population, C-Declining population
(b) A-Expanding population, B-Declining population, C-Stable population
(c) A-Stable population, B-Declining population, C-Expanding population
(d) A-Declining population, B-Stable population, C-Expanding population
36. Which of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical deciduous forest
(c) Temperate evergreen forest
(d) Temperate deciduous forest
37. Which of the following ecosystems has highest gross primary productivity?
(a) Coral reefs
(b) Grasslands
(c) Rain forests
(d) Mangrooves
38. Ecosystem has tvvo” components
(a) plants and animals
(b) biotic and abiotic
(c) weeds and trees
(d) None of the above
39. Energy storage at consumer level is called
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) secondry productivity
(c) net primary productivity
(d) net productivity
40. Ecological niche is
(a) the surface area of the ocean
(b) an ecologically adapted zone
(c) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community
(d) formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake
41. Identify A, Band C.
(a) A-Aphotic zone, B-Euphotic zone, C-Disphotic zone
(b) A-Euphotic zone, B-Disphotic zone, C-Aphotic zone
(c) A-Euphotic zone.B-Aphotic zone, C-Disphotic zone
(d) A-Aphotic zone, B-Disphotic zone, C-Euphotic zone
42. Match the following columns.
Codes
A B C D E F G
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(b) 2 1 4 5 6 7 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 7 6 5
(d)6 5 4 3 2 1 7
43. The pyramid offnumber of individuals per unit area in a grassland ecosystem will be
(a) linear
(b) inverted
(c) upright
(d) irregular
44. Some organisms resemble other organisms and thus, escape from enemies. This phenomenon is known as
(a) homology
(b) variation
(c) analogy
(d) mimicry
45. Food chain is a series of population, which starts with producers. Its is concerning with
(a) biotic components only
(b) energy flow and transfer of nutrients
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) biotic and decomposers
46. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(a) Mountain
(b) Forest
(c) Desert
(d) Ocean
47.What is plankton?
(a) Sea scum
(b) Floating vegetation
(c) Layer of aquatics
(d) Floating microscopic plants and animals
48.Plants growing in saline soil water are called
(a) lithophytes
(b) halophytes
(c) mesophytes
(d) psammophytes
49.All living organisms on or around the earth constitute
(a) biosphere
(b) biome
(c) community
(d) ecosystem
50.Aquatic photo diffraction produces zones
(a) euphotic, disphotic and aphotic
(b) aphotic, euphotic and disphotic
(c) euphotic, aphotic and disphotic
(d) disphotic, aphotic and euphotic
51.More than 70% of world’s freshwater is contained in
(a) Antarctica
(b) Glaciers and mountains
(c) Greenland
(d) Polar ice
52.Approximately what amount of energy is available to one trophic level from one level lower to it?
(a) 1 %
(b) 10 %
(c) 20 %
(d) 30 %
53.Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example.
(a) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish
(b) Melanism in moths
(c) Poison fangs in snakes
(d) Colour change in chamaeleon
54.Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
55.Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are
(a) high fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and a very young age distribution
(b) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate and a very young age distribution
(c) high infant mortality, low fertility, uneven population growth and a very young age distribution
(d) high mortality, high density, uneven population growth and a very old age distribution
56.The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is called
(a) net productivity
(b) primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) tertiary productivity
57.Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses is called
(a) primary productivity
(b) secondary productivity
(c) tertiary productivity
(d) net primary productivity
58. What is keystone species?
(a) A species, which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the community’s organisation and survival
(b) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community’s organisation
(c) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
(d) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species
59. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm / m2 / yr) in a grassland ecosystem?
(a) Secondary Production (SP)
(b) Tertiary Production (TP)
(c) Gross Production (GP)
(d) Net Production (NP)
60. The standing crop is measured as
(a) the number of plants in a unit area
(b) the number of animals in a unit area
(c) the number of microbes in a unit area
(d) the number of biomass in a unit area
61. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any given time is called
(a) standing crop
(b) standing state
(c) ecological succession
(d) climax community
62. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts through
(a) leaching
(b) humification
(c) stratification
(d) catabolism
63. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Humification and mineralisation occur during decomposition in soil
(b) Humification leads to accumulation of dark coloured humus
(c) Decomposition is an anoxygenic process
(d) The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process of mineralisation
64. Broad leaved forests of oak are found in
(a) tropical deciduous forest
(b) tropical evergreen forest
(c) temperate deciduous forest
(d) North coniferous forest
65. What will happen, if we completely remove the decomposers from earth?
(a) Photosynthesis will be checked
(b) Respiration will be checked
(c) Reproduction will be checked
(d) Mineral movement will be blocked
66. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Prairies — North America
(b) Pampas — South America
(c) Steppes — South Africa
(d) Tussocks — New Zealand
67. The great barrier reef along the East coast of Australia can be categorised as
(a) population
(b) community
(c) ecosystem
(d) biome
68. The trophic structure and function of an ecosystem can be represented as ecological pyramids. The concept of ecological pyramids was proposed by
(a) Reiter
(b) HaeCkel
(c) Charles Elton
(d) AG Tansley
69. Lichens are association of
(a) bacteria and fungus
(b) algae and bacterium
(c) fungus and algae
(d) fungus and virus
70. Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight
71. The pyramid of energy is always
(a) inverted
(b) upright
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) inverted in forest ecosystem
72. Desert can be converted into grassland by
(a) psammophytes
(b) oxylophytes
(c) halophytes
(d) tropical forest
73. Which of the following is not an upright pyramid?
(a) Pyramid of energy in all ecosystem
(b) Pyramid of biomass in grassland
(c) Pyramid of number in grassland
(d) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem
74. Energy enters ecosystem through
(a) decomposers
(b) producers
(c) herbivores
(d) carnivores
75. The pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem is
(a) inverted
(b) always upright
(c) sometimes upright
(d) upright and sometimes inverted
76. Given below is one of the types of ecological pyramids. This type represents
(a) pyramid of numbers in a grassland
(b) pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
(c) pyramid of biomass in a lake
(d) energy pyramid in a spring
77. In the given figure, identify coniferous forest, Arctic alpine tundra and tropical forest respectively
(a) I, VI and III
(b) V, VI and III
(c) IV, III and I
(d) I, II and III
78. Which leaved of the following is not correct?
(a) The pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted
(b) The pyramid of energy is always inverted
(c) Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter areas and the successional serves progress from hydric to mesic conditions
(d) Xerarch succession takes place in dry areas
79. The correct path of energy flow in an ecosystem is
(a) Decomposers-Producers-Herbivores-Carnivores
(b) Producers-Herbivores-Carnivores-Decomposers
(c) Herbivores-Carnivores-Producers -Decomposers
(d) Decomposers-Carnivores-Producers-Herbivores
80. The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called
(a) climax community
(b) xerarch secession
(c) ecologicai’succession
(d) hydrarch succession
81. The species that invade a bare area are called
(a) hydrophytic species
(b) xerophytic species
(c) mesophytic species
(d) pioneer species
Direction (Q. NOS. 82-87) In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
82. Assertion The rate of decomposition of detritus is reduced in the regions of high altitude.
Reason It happens due to immobilisation of nutrients.
83. Assertion A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.
Reason An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web.
84. Assertion In tropical rain forests, O-horizon and A-horizon of soil profile are shallow and nutrient poor.
Reason Excessive qrowth of microorganisms in the soil depletes its organic content.
85. Assertion The sex ratio of Kerala is highest in India.
Reason In countries like India, the population is increasing at a rapid rate.
86. Assertion Animals adopt different strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason Praying mantis is green in colour, which merges with plant foliage.
87. Assertion Genecology is the study of genetic composition and changes in relation to the origin of ecads, ecotypes, new species, etc.
Reason Autecology deals with the study of a group of organisms.
88. Match the following columns.
Codes
ABCD ABCD
(a) 1 23 4 (b) 5 2 1 3
(c)4 1 5 3 (d) 2 13 4
89. Match the following columns.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 5
(b) 5 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 2 5 1
90. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?
(a) Competition
(b) Predation
(c) Parasitism
(d) Mutualism
91. Secondary succession takes place on/in
(a) bara rock
(b) degraded forest
(c) newly created pond
(d) newly cooled lava
92. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks.
93. A biologist studied the population of rats in a form. He
found that the average natality was 250, average mortality was 240, immigration 20, emmigration was 30. The net increase in population is
(a) 15
(b) 05
(c) 0
(d) 10
94. A sedantry sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab.The associationn is
(a) symbiosis
(b) commensalism
(c) amensalism
(d) ectoparasatism
95. Identify the likely organisms A, B, C and D in the food web shown below
96. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
(a) detritus
(b) humus
(c) standing state
(d) standing crop
97. What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?
(a) Stable population
(b) Declining population
(c) Expanding population
(d) Vanishing population
98. In a stable ecosystem, which of the following limits the number of trophic levels?
(a) Biomass
(b) Number of nutrients
(c) Availability of nutrients
(d) The presence of contaminants that increase in concentration along the food chain
99. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright?
(a) Pyramid of number
(b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Pyramid of energy
(d) None of the above
100. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called
(a) net primary productivity
(b) secondary productivity
(c) standing crop
(d) gross primary productivity
Answers: