NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Unit Test 1
1. The term ‘New systematics’ was given by
(a) Julian Huxley
(b) Bateson
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Darwin
2. The biological definition of a species depends on
I. the geographical distribution of two groups of organisms.
II. reproductive isolation of two groups of organisms.
III. anatomical and developmental differences between the two groups of organisms.
IV. difference in the adaptation of two groups oforganisms.
Choose the correct statement(s).
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) III and IV
3. Which of the following are considered as the twin characteristics of growth?
I. Responses to stimuli.
II. Increases in mass.
III. Increases in the number of individuals.
IV. Increases in width.
(a) II and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
4. Consider the following statements.
I. Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
II. Metabolic reactions can also be demonstrated outside the body in isolated cell-free systems.
III. ‘Response to stimuli’ is a defining property of living organisms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c) I and III
(d)I, II and III
5. The binomial system assigns to each organism a unique name that describes its
(a) order and family
(b) body plan and habitat
(c) species and genus
(d) family and species
6. The two part format of the scientific name, referred to as binomial, ensures that
(a) each species is assigned a unique name
(b) each species has a name that is understandable regardless of language barriers among scientists
(c) systematics can easily specify the closest relatives of any species
(d) All of the above
7. Choose the wrong statements regarding universal rules of nomenclature.
I. The first word in a biological name represents the genus.
II. The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter.
III. Both the words in a biological name,-when handwritten are separately underlined.
IV. Biological names are generally in english and written in italics.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only IV
(d) II, III and IV
8. All the members of which one of the following groups have the greatest number of characteristics in common?
(a) Genus
(b) Kingdom
(c) Phylum
(d) Species
9. The analytical approach to understand the diversity and relatedness of both extant and extinct organisms is called
(a) Systematics
(b) Evolution
(c) Taxonomy
(d) Binomial nomenclature
10. Which of the following methods to establish phylogenetic relationships among organisms has been developed most recently?
(a) Comparing morphology (shape and structure)
(b) Comparing physiology (the functioning of structure and systems)
(c) Comparing the component sequences of proteins andnucleic acids
(d) Comparing behavioural patterns
11. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they
I. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
II. have more than 90% similar genes.
III. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites.
IV. have same number of chromosomes.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II and III
12. What is the focus of the branch of biology called taxonomy?
(a) Evolution
(b) The classification of life-forms by their similarities and differences
(c) Genetics
(d) The history of the field of biology
13. A taxon is a
(a) formal grouping at any given level
(b) formal grouping at any level from phylum to species
(c) clade
(d) species
14. Two different genera are classified in the same taxonomic category called family. Which statement is correct about their classification?
(a) The same class, but different species
(b) A different class and different order
(c) The same phylum, but different class
(d) A different kingdom and different phylum
15. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Natural taxonomy is based on natural similarities amongst organisms.
II. Cytotaxonomy is based on chromosomal studies.
III. Karyotaxonomy is based on chemicals in cells or tissues.
IV. Artificial taxonomy is based on habit and habitat of organisms.
(a) Only I
(b) II and III .
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
16. Which of the following statements are correct about tautoriyms?
I. Generic name different than species name.
II. Generic name repeated as specific name.
III. Generic name absent.
IV. Generic name is written after species name.
(a) I, III and IV
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) All of these
17. The correct statement about taxon is
I. It is the taxonomic group of any rank.
II. It was first introduced by ICBN.
III. Linnaeus is the founder of taxon.
IV. Taxon term was used in Systema Naturae.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) III and IV
(d) I and III
18. Which one is the correct hierarchical order is taxonomy?
(a) Genus < Species < Class < Order
(b) Genus < Class < Order < Family
(c) Species < Order < Class < Phylum
(d) Genus < Class < Division < Order
19. Match the following columns.
Column 1 Column II
A. Classical taxonomy 1. Old systematics
B. Practical taxonomy 2. Utility of organisms
C. Natural taxonomy 3. Evolutionary history of species
D. Chemotaxonomy 4. Natural similarities amongst organisms
5. The presence or absence of chemicals in cells or tissues
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 5
(c) 5 4 3 2 (d) 1 2 4 5
20. Consider the following statements.
I. Human’s scientific name is Homo sapiens.
II. Genera Plantarum was written by John Ray.
III. Highest taxonomic category is divison.
IV. Taxonomic group of any rank is taxon.
V. A group of closely related species of organisms represent genus.
VI. The tdrm ‘systematics’ was coined by AP de Candolle
Choose the correct ones from the options below.
(a) II, III, IV and VI
(b) I, III, V and VI
(c) I, IV and V
(d) II, III and VI
21.Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Lal Bagh 1. Darjeeling
B. National Botanical Garden 2. kolkata
C. Indian Botanical Garden 3. Lucknow
D. Forest Research Institute 4. Dehradun
E. Lloyd’s Botanical Garden 5. Bengaluru
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 5 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 3 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 4 5
(d) 4 1 3 4 5
22. Which of the following depict the correct functions of botanical garden?
I. One can observe tropical plants there.
II. They allow ex situ conservation of germplasm.
III. They provide the natural habitat for wildlife.
IV. They provide a beautiful area for recreation.
(a) I, III and IV (b) Only II
(c) Only III (d) il and IV
23. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Largest herbarium 1. Indian Botanical Garden, Sibpur .
B. Largest botanical garden of Asia Italy 2. Pisa Botanical Garden,
C. First botanical garden 3. Royal Botanical Garden, Kew
4. National Botanical Garden, Lucknow
Codes
ABC ABC
(a) 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3
24. ‘The biological concept of species was formulated by
(a) Mayr
(b) Stebbins
(c) Heywood
(d) Love
25. Two worms in the same class must also be grouped in the same
(a) order
(b) phylum
(c) genus
(d) family
26. Which statement about prokaryotic fimbriae and pili is not true?
(a) They may assist prokaryotes in adhering to a substrate
(b) They may assist prokaryotes in adhering to each other
(c) They are more similar in structure to eukaryotic flagella than they are similar to prokaryotic flagella
(d) Specialised pili link prokaryotes during conjugation
27. What is the role of the basal apparatus in a prokaryotic cell?
(a) It attaches the capsule to the cell wall
(b) It controls the joining of two bacterial cells during conjugation
(c) It junctions in the cellular respiration of some aerobic prokaryotes
(d) It is a system of rings in the cell wall that power the flagellum
28. Bacteria that are tend to have abundant internal membranes.
(a) photosynthetic
(b) Gram negative
(c) flagellated
(d) pathogenic
29. Which one of the following criteria is not rettened to identify different kinds of bacteria?
(a) Mode of nutrition
(b) Cell wall composition
(c) Number of chromosomes
(d) Cell shape
30. Which of the following is not present in eukaryotic cells?
(a) photosynthetic pigments
(b) a nucleoid with a circular chromosome
(c) membrane enclosed organelles
(d) a ‘9+2’ arrangement of microtubules
31. Plasmids
(a) replicate independently of the main chromosome
(b) often contain antibiotic resistance genes
(c) are transferred from one bacterium to another by conjugation
(d) All of the above
32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of somearchaea?
(a) The ability to produce methane from carbon dioxide
(b) The absence of a nuclear envelope
(c) The presence of a circular chromosome
(d) The presence of peptidoglycan
33. Which of the following is a difference between bacteria and archaea?
(a) Archaea are unicellular and bacteria are colonial
(b) The genes of archaea have introns, whereas bacteria lack introns
(c) They have different chemicals in their cell membranes and cell walls
(d) Bacteria are autotrophic and archaea are heterotrophic
34. Prokaryotes found inhabiting the great salt lake would be the
(a) cyanobacteria
(b) extreme halophiles
(c) extremophiles
(d) methanogens
35. Which one of the following groups of prokaryotes is classified as a member of the domain archaea?
(a) Gram negative bacteria
(b) Spirochaetes
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Methanogens
36. The bacteria that cause tetanus can be killed only by prolonged heating at temperature considerably above boiling. This suggests that these bacteria
(a) have cell walls containing peptidoglycan
(b) protect themselves by secreting antibiotics
(c) secrete endotoxins
(d) produce endospores
37. In an experiment, a microbiologist put equal numbers of each of the following organisms into a flask of sterile broth, consisting mostly of sugar and a few amino acids. She then placed the flask in the dark. Which of the organism would be most likely to survive?
(a) Chemoheterotrophic bacteria
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Photoheterotrophs
(d) Photoautotrophs
38. The Desulfovibrio bacterium breaks down organic matter (which it must have) and uses sulphate (not oxygen) as an electron acceptor. As a result, it produces hydrogen sulphide (H2S), accounting for the ‘rotten egg’ smell of swamp muck. Oxygen is a deadly poison to Desulfovibrio. We would call Desulfovibrio a(n)
(a) facultatively aerobic chemoheterotroph
(b) obligately anaerobic chemoheterotroph
(c) facultatively anaerobic chemoautotroph
(d) obligately anaerobic chemoautotroph
39. Choose the list below that contains the substances required by typical nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
(a) oxygen, sulphur, light, water and some minerals
(b) carbon dioxide, sulphur, light, water and some minerals
(c) carbon, nitrogen, light, water and some minerals
(d) carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water, light and some minerals
40. What is the role of heterocysts in a cyanobacterial filament?
(a) They carry out photosynthesis and nitrogen-fixation
(b) They carry out only nitrogen-fixation
(c) They carry out only photosynthesis
(d) They oxidise inorganic substances to obtain energy
41. Which group of bacteria is unusual in that they lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls?
(a) Spirochaetes
(b) Epsilon proteobacteria
(c) Chlamydias
(d) Gram negative bacteria
42. For which method of bioremediation would a methanogen most likely be used?
(a) Extracting gold ore
(b) Decomposing waste in a sewage-treatment facility
(c) The production of transgenic plants
(d) The production of antibiotics
43. Consider the following statements.
I. Biological classification is the scientific ordering of organisms in a hierarchical series of groups on the basis of their relationships, i.e. morphological, evolutionary and others.
II. Whittaker classified organisms, on the basis of autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
III. In five kingdom system of classification. Living . organisms can be divided into prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells on the basis of cell structure.
Choose the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
44. Identify the following statements.
I. All prokaryotic organisms were grouped together under kingdom-Monera.
II. The unicellular eukaryotic organism were placed in kingdom-Protista.
III. Paramecium and Amoeba lack cell well.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III
45. Given below are some statements about class-Basidiomycetes.
I. Members may be found in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies.
II. The mycelium is branched and septate.
III. Asexual reproduction takes place by budding. Choose the correct ones.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
46. Which example below is a correct statement about Bacteroides thetaiotaomicron, a bacterium that lives in the human intestines?
(a) The bacteria have a parasitic relationship with the human body
(b) The bacteria have a commensal relationship with the human body
(c) The bacteria have a mutualistic relationship with the human body
(d) The bacteria directly create a network of intestinal blood vessels necessary to absorb food
47. Protists are
I. unicellular and prokaryote
II. unicellular and eukaryote
III. multicellular and eukaryote
IV. autotroph or heterotroph
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) III and IV (d) II and IV
48. The placement of all protists in one kingdom caused dissatisfaction among taxonomists mainly because
(a) some protists are autotrophic and others are heterotrophic
(b) protist cells are more similar to prokaryotic cells than to eukaryotic cells
(c) various pieces of evidence indicate that the kingdom-Protista cannot be monophyletic
(d) various pieces of evidence indicate that the protists are not polyphyletic
49. The euglenoids could be said to bridge the evolutionary gap between plant like protists and animal-like protists. This is because they have some characteristics of each group, e.g.,
(a) they have a cell wall but also have flagella
(b) they have true roots, stems and leaves
(c) they have a cell wall but carry on photosynthesis
(d) many carry on photosynthesis, have flagella and lack a cell wall
50. Which of these groups includes photosynthetic unicellular organisms with flagella and contractile vacuoles?
(a) Diatoms
(b) Dinoflagellates
(c) Eugienoids
(d) Ciliates
51. What do a carnivorous dinoflagellate, a parasitic apicomplexan and a ciliate have in common?
(a) All three are heterotrophic and autotrophic
(b) All three form colonies of cells
(c) All three are parasitic on other species of organisms
(d) All three have sacs known as alveoli just beneath their plasma membranes
52. Which organisms are capable of producing a ‘red tide’?
(a) Dinoflagellates
(b) Chrysophytes (diatoms)
(c) Sporozoans
(d) Euglenoids
53. Which characteristic is shared by most diatoms, golden algae and brown algae at least at some stages of their life cycles?
(a) They all have flagella with numerous fine, hair-like projections
(b) All three store food reserves in the form of a glucose polymer called laminarin
(c) All are autotrophs
(d) All of the above
54. Which of the following organisms are commercially harvested to extract algin and carrageenan from their cell walls?
(a) Dinoflagellates
(b) Golden algae
(c) Brown and red seaweeds
(d) Marine green algae like Ulva
55. Spirogyral lateral conjugatlbn takes place in
(a) heterosporous species
(b) homosporous species
(c) heterothallic species
(d) homothallic species
56. On some areas of the sea floor one could observe an ‘ooze’ that is hundred of metre thick. What does this ooze consists of?
(a) The tests of dead radiolarians
(b) The tests of dead diatoms
(c) The decaying porous shells of forms
(d) The gel-forming polysaccharides secreted by brown and red algae
57. In biology laboratory, a plasmodial slime mould is used as a demonstration organism. One of the student does not understand why this organism is not considered multicellular. How would you explain it to her?
(a) The Plasmodium is undivided by membranes and contains many diploid nuclei, therefore, it is not technically multicellular
(b) The distinct cells that make up the Plasmodium do not cooperate, so they do not represent a truly multicellular organism
(c) Plasmodial slime moulds are not able to reproduce sexually, so therefore, they are not truly multicellular
(d) Multicellular organisms are seen only in the kingdom-Animalia and Plantae
58. Which structures allow plants to readily take up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
(a) Stomata
(b) Cuticles
(c) Gametangia
(d) Mitochondria
59. In the life cycle of a fern, the multicellular male gametangium (the sex organ that produces sperm cells) is called
(a) antheridium
(b) archegonium
(c) frond
(d) rhizome
60. In the life cycle of ferns, the multicellular female gametangium (the sex organ that contains an egg) is a(n)
(a) antheridium
(b) archegonium
(c) frond
(d) rhizome
61. Ferns and mosses are limited mostly to moist environment because
(a) their pollens are carried by water
(b) they lack cuticles and stomata
(c) they lack vascular tissue
(d) they have swimming sperms
62. The dots on the underside of a fern frond are spore casses; therefore, what is true of the plant to which the frond belongs?
(a) It is a spore
(b) ‘It is a gamete
(c) It is a sporophyte
(d) It is a gametophyte
63. Fern gametophytes are
(a) photosynthetic diploid organisms
(b) produced from haploid gametes
(c) part of the asexual life cycle
(d) free-living, multicellular organisms
64. Vascular tissues of plants include
(a) xylem for conducting water and minerals; and phloem for conducting dissolved organic molecules .
(b) xylem for conducting organic molecules; and phloem forconducting water and minerals
(c) lignin for conducting organic molecules; and phloem for conducting sugars
(d) phloem for conducting water and minerals; and lignin for conducting organic molecules
65. Heterosporous plants produce
(a) megaspores that develop into female gametophytes and microspores that develop into male gametophytes
(b) megaspores that develop into male gametophytes and microspores that develop into female gametophytes
(c) megaspores that bear antheridia and microspores that bear archegonia
(d) spores that produce both archegonia and antheridia
66. Which one of the following is true of seed plant, but not true of seedless plants?
(a) The sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte
(b) The sporophyte is large and the gametophyte is small and independent
(c) The gametophyte is reduced and dependent on the sporophyte
(d) The spore is the main means of dispersing of offspring
67. The diploid generation of the plant life cycle always
(a) produces spores
(b) is called the gametophyte
(c) is larger and more conspicuous than the haploid stage
(d) develops from a spore
68. The closest seedless relatives of seed plants produce one kind of spore that gives rise to a bisexual gametophyte. What does this suggest about the ancestors of seed plants?
(a) They were gymnosperms
(b) They were bryophytes
(c) They wer® heterosporous
(d) They were homosporous
69. Where and when does fertilisation occur in the mushroom life cycle?
(a) Underground, as a mycelium begins to spread
(b) On the surface of the ground, when a basidiospore germinates
(c) In a mushroom, when the nuclei of a dikaryotic cell fuse
(d) Underground, when the hyphae of.different mating types fuse
70. Lichens are important pioneers in areas that have been burned by fires or destroyed by lava flows because
(a) they are important in the initial stages of soil formation
(b) they release chemicals that maintain the surface of the underlying substratum
(c) they take up excess nitrogen
(d) they thrive on acid rain
71. Which characteristic below is shared by plants, fungi and animals?
(a) They all have cell walls
(b) All are multicellular eukaryotes
(c) All are held together by structural proteins
(d) All have intracellular junctions known as desmosomes
72. Many members of the red algae are adapted to deeper water due to the observation that
(a) their red pigments readily absorb red light
(b) their cell walls are adapted to withstand bright light
(c) their photosynthetic pigments efficiently absorb blue and green light
(d) they grow long stalks with floats on the ends to hold the blades near the surface
73. The red algae are characterised by
(a) alternation of generations in some species
(b) flagellated gametes that do not require water for fertilisation to occur
(c) population explosions known as ‘red tides’
(d) multinucleated portions
74. Which of the following is not a difference between algae and plants?
(a) Plant cells have rigid cellulose walls and algal cells do not
(b) Plant zygotes develop into embryos, whereas those of algae do not
(c) Algae lack the some organs (leaves, stems and roots), characteristic of plants
(d) Plants have xylem and phloem and algae do not
75. Which of the following is not a homology shared by land plants and their closest living algal relatives?
(a) Rosette cellulose-synthesising complexes
(b) Many of the details of cell division
(c) The presence of peroxisomes
(d) The presence of cuticle of the surface of leaves
76. Alternation of generations
(a) is unique to plants
(b) is distinguished by a unicellular haploid stage and a multicellular diploid generation
(c) consists of a diploid gametophyte stage alternating with a haploid sporophyte stage
(d) is distinguished by haploid and diploid stages that are both multicellular
77. Plants undergo alternation of generations in which
(a) the sporophyte generation alternates with the gametophyte generation
(b) the vascular generation alternates with the non-vascular generation
(c) male plants alternate with female plants
(d) antheridia alternate with archegonia
78. Gametangia are
(a) single-celled in algae, multicellular in most plants
(b) multicellular in algae, single-celled in most plants
(c) responsible for the plant’s ability to retain moisture in arid environment
(d) the site of development of the fertilised egg in algae
79. Which is a key difference between alternation of generations in plants and sexual reproduction in non-plant organisms?
(a) In plants, the haploid and diploid stages are both multicellular
(b) In plants, only the haploid stage is multicellular
(c) In plants, the haploid generation is always dependent on the diploid generation
(d) In other sexually reproducing organisms, the haploid and diploid generations are both multicellular
80. When you see a green, ‘teaty moss, you are tooVung at the
(a) spore-producing structure
(b) sporophytic generation
(c) gametophytic generation
(d) structure, where meiosis occurs
81. Fertilisation in moss occurs, when sperm swims from a
(n) and down the neck of a(n)
(a) antheridium; sporangium
(b) sporangium; antheridium
(c) antheridium; archegonium
(d) archegonium; antheridium
82. The gametophyte generation of a moss
(a) produces spores
(b) is dependent on the sporophyte
(c) has tracheids but no vessel elements
(d) is haploid
83. How are gametes produced by bryophytes?
(a) By mitosis of gametophyte cells
(b) By meiosis of gametophyte cells
(c) By meiosis of sporophyte cells
(d) By mitosis of spores
84. In mosses, haploid ………….directly produces buds that grow into gametophores.
(a) archegonia
(b) antheridia
(c) spores
(d) protonemata
85. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Diploblastic, radial symmetry and tissue 1. Wuchereria level organisation
B. Triploblastic, pseudocoelomates and 2. Dugesia complete digestive system
C. Bilateral symmetry, incomplete digestive 3. Cucumaria system, organ and organ system level of organisation
D’. Triploblastic, coelomate and radial 4. Balanoglossussymmetry
5. Hydra
Codes
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 5
(b) 3 1 2 5
(c) 5 4 1 3
(d) 5 1 2 3
86. Which of the following statements are true/false?
I Cell aggregate body plan is found in phylum-Platyhelminthes.
II Radial symmetry is the most common symmetry found in animals.
III Pseudocoelom is only found in phylum-Aschelminthes.
IV All trioploblastic animals have a true colem
V. Haemocoel is sometimes observed in animals belonging to phylum-Platyhelminthes.
(a) I and V are true, but II, III and IV are false
(b) II, III and V are true, but I and IV are false
(c) I, II and III are true, but IV and V are false
(d) I, II, IV and V are false, but only III is true
87. Which one of the following is a matching set of phylum and its three examples?
(a) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia and Aurelia
(b) Platyhelminthes – Planaria, Enterobius and Schistosoma
(c) Mollusca – Loligo, Teredo and Octopus
(d) Porifera- Spongilla, Euplectella and Pennatuia
88. Animals probably evolved from colonial protists. How do animals differ from these-protist ancestors?
(a) The protists were prokaryotic
(b) Animals have more specialised cells
(c) The protists were heterotrophic
(d) The protists were autotrophic i
89. During the development of most animals, cleavage leads to
(a) the formation of a zygote .
(b) the formation of a blastula
(c) the formation of a gastrula
(d) fertilisation
90. Symmetry is one of the most basic characteristics of animals. The group that has a different symmetry from the other four groups listed here is the
(a) arthropod
(b) chordates
(c) molluscs
(d) jellies
91. Which of the following is associated with bilateral symmetry?
(a) A sessile life style ,
(b) A lack of true tissues
(c) Parazoans
(d) Cephalisation
92. Unlike other animals, sponges
(a) are unicellular
(b) possess cell walls
(c) lack true tissues
(d) exhibit bilateral symmetry
93. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cnidarians?
(a) Gastrovascular cavity
(b) Ectoderm
(c) Mesoderm .
(d) A lack of true tissues
94. All animals with bilateral symmetry have germ tissue layer(s).
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Direction (Q. Nos. 95-98) In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. „
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
95. Assertion Taxonomy is the classification of life forms by their similarities and differences.
Reason It is related to binomial nomenclature.
96. Assertion Linnaean species is a taxonomic species.
Reason It is distinguished on morphological grounds.
97. Assertion Mycoplasmas do not stain Gram positively.
Reason Because they lack cell walls.
98. Assertion Mantle of molluscans secretes calcareous shell.
Reason It may be external or internal.
99. Match the following columns.
Column 1 Column II
A. Eucarpic 1. Ascomycetes
B. Neurospora 2. Notochord absent
C. Vertebrates 3. Phytophthora
D. Invertebrates 4. Phycomycetes
5. True coelomates
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 5 4 2 1
100. Match the following columns.
Column 1 Column II
A. Facultative anaerobes 1. Little leaf disease
B. Amoeba 2. Non-photosynthetic
C. Mycoplasma 3. Pseudomonas
D. Fungi 4. Diarrhoea
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1 4(d) 3 4 1 2
Answers :
