NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Unit Test 5
1. Vegetative reproduction involves formation of new plants by
(c) vegetative organs of the parent plant
(d) None of the above
2. Events in the diagram are (in sequential order)
(a) fission of gametes ->new individual -> zygote
(b) fusion of gametes -> zygote ->neiw individual (ceil 2n)
(c) fission of gametes->zygote-> hew individual (cell 2n)
(d) stages in the gametogenesis
3. Genetic recombination occurs in
(a) asexual reproduction
(b) vegetative propagation
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) Ail of the above
4. Xenia refers to effect of pollen on
(b) taste of fruit
(c) vascular tissue
5. Fusion of mature individuals, which directly act as gametes is called
6. During seed germination, seed coat ruptures due to
(a) differentiation of cotyledons
(b) massive glycolysis in endosperm and cotyledons
(c) massive imbibition of water
(d) sudden increase in cell division
7. Which i-of tthe following statements is true with reference to cross-pollination in angiosperms?
(a) It requires the production of a large number of pollen grains
(b) It can fail to occur due to distance barrier
(c) It occurs only in unisexual flowers
(d) It most often results in high yield of plants
8. Non-transfer of pollen frdm anther to stigma of the same flower due to mechanical barrier is
9. Match the following columns.
(a) 5 1 2 3 4 .
(b) 5 1 3 2 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 5
(d) 5 2 3 4 1
10. Nuclear endosperm has
(a) every nuclear division followed by wall formation
(b) initially free-nuclear divisions followed by wall formation
(c) first division followed by wall formation and other free nuclear
(d) None of the above
11. Heterozygosity is produced following
12. The root system grows out from the
(a) embryo of the seeds
(b) radicle of the embryo
(c) plumule of the embryo
(d) All of these
13. Labyrinth appearance is most pronounced in certain seeds when there is
(a) seed-coat intrusion
(b) endosperm rumination
(c) lobing and folding of cotyledons in combination with endosperm rumination
(d) lobing and folding of cotyledons in combination with seed-coat intrusion
14. Central dogma was proposed by
(a) Beadle and Tatum
15. Triplet codon refers to sequence of three bases on
(d) All of these
16. Match the following columns.
A B C D E v A B
(a) 14 5 3 2 (b) 2 1
(c) 12 3 4 5 (d) 1 4
17. Formation of sporophyte from a vegetative portion of prothallus (or from gametophyte) without sexual fusion is called
18. Golden age of reptiles is
19. Temporary pairing or conjugation along with nuclear exchange occurs in
20. Which of the following is not a part of mammalian male reproductive system?
(a) Vas deferens
(b) Cowper’s gland
(c) Bartholin’s gland
(d) Preputial gland
21. Which of the following statement support the view that elaborate sexual reproductive processes appeared much later in organic evolution?
I. Lower groups of organisms have complex body design.
II. Asexual reproduction is common in lower groups.
III. Asexual reproduction is common in higher groups of organisms.
IV. High incidences of sexual reproduction are visible in angiosperms and vertebrates.
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) II and III
22. Binary fission is a method of reproduction in
(c) blue-green algae
(d) All of these
23. Sporozoans reproduce by
(c) multiple fission
24. Identify the animal, which shows budding as the mode of reproduction.
(d) All of these
25. Sexual reproduction does not occur in
26. Isogamy occurs in
27. Heterogamy is observed in
(b) blue-green algae
28. Identify the following diagram.
A. Zoospore in Cftlamydomonas.
B. Conidia of Penicillium.
C. Buds in Hydra.
D. Gemmules in sponge
All the above are
(a) bodies involved in sexual reproduction
(b) bodies involved in asexual reproduction
(c) bodies of young ones
(d) All the above are correct
29. The age of menarche in human female is
(a) 11-12 years
(b) 16-17 years
(c) 18-20 years
(d) 8-9 years
30. Menopause in human females occurs at the age of
(a) 11-12 years
(b) 30-35 years
(c) 45-55 years
(d) 65-70 years
31. Menstrual discharge consists of
(a) sloughed endometrial tissues
(b) mucous and leucocytes
(c) unfertilised ovum
(d) All of the above
32. Fertilised ovum in human is implanted on
(a) endometrium of uterus
(b) epithelium of oviduct
(c) myometrium of uterus
33. Fertilised ovum in humans is implanted at a stage of development called
34. Identify the gametes in fig A, B, and C.
(a) A-Heterogametes, B-lsogametes, C-Homogametes
(b) A-Homogametes, B-lsogametes, C-Heterogametes
(c) A-lsogametes, B-Heterogametes, C-Heterogametes
(d) A-Heterogametes, B-Heterogametes, C-lsogametes
35. Which of the following constitutes the accessory male genital gland of a mammal?
(a) Rectal gland
(c) Preputial gland
(d) Seminal vesicles and prostate gland
36. The outermost covering of the testes is called
(a) tunica propria
(b) germinal epithelium
(c) tunica albuginea
37. Scrotal testes are absent in
(c) Rhesus monkey
38. Abdominal testes are found in
39. Spermatogenesis occurs in
(a) seminiferous tubules
(b) uriniferous tubules
(d) interstitial tubules
40. The hormone inhibin is secreted by
(a) Leydig cells
(b) mast cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) macrophage cells
41. Luteinisation of granulosa cells of the ovulated Graafian follicle is facilitated by
42. Corpus luteum of the mammalian ovary is
(a) a degenerate structure
(b) a transient endocrine structure
(c) also called yellow body
(d) Both (b) and (c)
43. Menstrual cycle is
(a) seasonal hormonal ovarian change
(b) conditional hormonal ovarian change
(c) periodic hormonal ovarian change
(d) habitual hormonal ovarian change
44. Which of the hormones are secreted by placenta?
(a) Relaxin, oestrogen and progesterone
(b) Oxytocin, oestrogen and progesterone
(c) FSH, LH and LTH
(d) Progesterone and FSH
45. Name the plants, the structures of which are given in the previous question and select the correct answer from the given option.
46. Identify the hormone, which is anti-FSH and anti-LH
(a) growth hormone
47. Events in the sexual reproduction.
I. Pre-fertilisation .
The sequential order of their occurrence is
(a) I ->III ->ll
(b) II ->l ->lll
(d) | -> || -> III
48. What is the strongest evidence that protobionts may have formed spontaneously?
(a) The fossil record found in the stromatolites
(b) The discovery of ribozymes showing that prebiotic RNA molecules may have been autocatalytic
(c) The production of organic compounds within a laboratory apparatus simulating conditions on early earth
(d) The relative ease with which liposomes can be synthesised in laboratories
49. Current theories of prebiotic evolution are based on evidence for all of the following except the abiotic
(a) production of small organic molecules
(b) production of liposomes
(c) replication of oligopeptides
(d) origin of DNA-protein interactions
50. The first genetic material was most likely a
(a) DNA polymer
(b) DNA enzyroer
(c) DNA oligonucleotide
(d) RNA polymer
51. Match the following columns.
A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 5 4
(b) 3 1 5 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 5
(d) 4 5 2 3 1
52. Which of the following is the strongest evidence that prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes?
(a) Meteorites that have struck the earth
(b) Abiotic experiments that constructed liposomes in the laboratory
(c) Liposomes look like prokaryotic cells
(d) The oldest fossilised cells resemble prokaryotes
53. Which of the following is an example for link species?
(a) Lobe fish
(b) Dodo bird
(d) Tyrannosaurus rex
54. Choose the correct options for A, B, C and D.
(a) A-Uncharged (RNA, B-Charged /RNA, C-5’end, D-3′ end
(b) A-Charged /RNA, B-Uncharged /RNA, C-3’end, D-5′ end
(c) A-Charged /RNA, B-Uncharged /RNA, C-5’end, D-3′ end
(d) A-Charged /RNA, B-Charged /RNA, C-5’end, D-3’end
55. Which of the following has not yet been synthesised in laboratory experiments studying the origin of life?
(a) Oligopeptides and other oligomers
(b) Protobionts that use DNA to program protein synthesis
(c) Liposomes with selectively permeable membranes
(d) Amino acids
56. What. condition would have made the primitive atmosphere of earth more conductive to the origin of life than the modern atmosphere of earth?
(a) The primitive,atmosphere had more oxygen than the modern atmosphere(and thus it successfully sustained the first living organisms
(b) The primitive atmosphere had a layer of ozone that shielded the first fragile cells
(c) The primitive atmosphere may have been a reducing one that facilitated the formation of complex substances from simple molecules
(d) The primitive atmosphere had less free energy than the modern atmosphere and thus newly formed organisms were less likely to be destroyed
57. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because
(a) the young ones are left on their own,
(b) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
(c) the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival
(d) the embryo takes a long time to develop
58. In what way were conditions on early earth different from those on modern earth?
(a) The early earth was intensely bombarded by large space debris
(b) The early atmosphere had significant quantities of ozone
(c) Less ultraviolet radiation penetrated the early atmosphere
(d) The early’earth had an oxidising atmosphere
59. Who introduced the idea of spontaneous generation?
60. Given the structure of one nucleotide. If two nucleotides are joined together then the diagram would be
61. Arrange the following events’ bribe replication of DNA
I. bonds between complementary bases breaks.
II. bonds between complementary bases forms.
III. DNA molecules uncoils.
IV. opposite strands separates.
V. sugar phosphate bonds forms.
VI. free nucleotides align with the complementary nucleotides on each strand.
Choose the correct alternative.
(a) VI I III IV V II .
(b) III VI I IV V II
(c) I III VI IV II V
(d) III I IV VI II V
62. Who said that organisms develop from pre-existing organisms?
(b) Louis Pasteur
63. Which of the following is not stop coden?
64. Spontaneous generation of flies from rotting meat was disproved by
(a) Francesco Reddi
(b) Louis Pasteur
(d) Charles Darwin
65. Spontaneous generation of bacteria from decomposing broth was disproved firstly by
(a) Joseph Lister
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Francesco Reddi
(d) Lazzaro Spallanzani
66. The principle of sterilisation is based upon experiments carried by
(b) SL Miller
(c) L Pasteur
(d) V Helmont
67. Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesised in Miller’s experiments?
(c) Aspartic acid
(d) Glutamic acid
68. Male garnetes are formed by
(b) generative cell
(c) pollen tube cell
(d) pollen mother cell .
69. Root of flowering plant has 24 chromosomes. Its gamete would carry chromosomes
70. Whichrehe is surrounded by callose wall?
(a) Male gamete
(b) Pollen grain
(d) Microspore mother cell
71. For the given DNA sequence
Choose the correct code of tRNA anticodon.
I. UAC II. AUG III. GGC IV. CCA
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II, III, IV and I
(c) I, III, II and IV
(d) II, I, IV and III
72. In human females, mensturation can be deferred by administration of
(a) FSH and LH
(b) oestrogen and progesterone
(c) FSH only
(d) LH only
73. Function of Sertoli cells is controlled by
74. Embryo at 16-celled stage is called
75. Low level of progesterone and oestrogen stimulates production of
(d)All the above
76. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and indepedent. This proposition was based on the
(a) results of F3 generation of a cross
(b) observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters shows only one character without any blending ‘
(c) self-pollination of F, offsprings
(d) cross-pollination of parental generations
77. Same data is given below regard DNA and mRNA Which DNA serves as DNA template for mRNA?
(a) DNA strand 1
(b) DNA strand 1 and 2
(c) Neither strand 1 nor 2
(d) DNA strand 2
78. Name given to fossil hominid of Shivalik hills in India is
(d) Indratherium .
79. The continent, where maximum fossils of prehistoric man have been found in
80. Coacervates belong to the category of
(b) molecular aggregates
(c) molecular aggregates having nucleic acid
Direction (Q. Nos. 81-83) In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
81. Assertion Universe is believed to have originated about 15 billion years ago through big bang.
Reason It is due to chemical explosion of an extremely dense entity.
82. Assertion Homo sapiens is parent species to which modern man belongs.
Reason Homo sapiens originated in Java.
83. Assertion Placenta is produced by the fusion of uterine endometrium with extra embryonic foetal membranes.
Reason It is formed for the physiological exchange between foetus and mother’s blood.
84. Match the following columns.
A B C D A B C
(a) 12 3 4 (b) 3 1 2
(c) 5 12 4 (d) 2 1 3
85. Match the following columns.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 12 3 (b) 4 5 1 2
(c) 2 3 15 (d) 5 4 2 1