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NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Unit Test 6

NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test – Unit Test 6

1. The quickest method of plant breeding is
(a) introduction
(b) selection
(c) hybridisation
(d) mutation breeding

2. Which raw material is used in fermentation processes of making beer?
(a) Starch in vegetables
(b) Starch is cereals
(c) Sugar in fruits .
(d) Protein in pulses

3. Coccidiosis in poultry is caused by
(a) virus
(b) Protozoa
(c) nematode
(d) bacteria

4. The term ‘wonder drug’ is used for antibiotic
(a) penicillin
(b) streptomycin
(c) aureomycin
(d) terramycin

5. Aquatic fern, which is an excellent biofertiliser
(a) Salvinia
(b)Azolla
(c) Mars ilea
(d) Pteridium

6. The new varieties of plants are produced by
(a) selection and hybridisation .
(b) mutation and selection
(c) introduction and mutation
(d) selection and introduction

7. What is the rate of secondary production in the energy pyramid given below?
NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test - Unit Test 6 1
(a) uncertain
(b) 100 kcalAn2/yr
(c) 10 kcalAnz/yr
(d) 110 kcal/hi2/yr

8. The advancement in genetic engineering has been possible due to discovery of
(a) exonucleases
(b) endonucleases
(c) transposons
(d) oncogenes

9. Gene sequencing is used for the determination of base sequence of
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) protein
(d) All of these

10. In genetic engineering, the term vector is applied for
(a) plasmid
(b) sources of DNA
(c) cell
(d) virus

11. Enzyme that is used in PCR technology is
(a) Taq polymerase
(b) polymerase
(c) helicase
(d) reverse transcriptase

12. Embryo culture is used for
(a) establishing suspension culture
(b) recovery of interspecific hybrids
(c) somatic hybridisation
(d) haploid production

13. Abiotic factors in an ecosystem include all of the following except
(a) amount of annual rainfall received
(b) types of decomposers living in an area
(c) amount of light an area receives
(d) types of rock found in an area

14. Which of these is a biotic factor?
(a) Soil
(b) Temperature
(c) Water
(d) Plant .

15. When the carrying capacity is equal to the population size, the net rate of increase in the population equals
(a) the carrying capacity
(b) less than zero
(c) the intrinsic rate of growth
(d) zero

16. Grass -> Cricket -> Prairie chicken -> Coyote -> Vulture
In which organisms in the food chain above would the biological magnification of DDT concentration be most obvious?
(a) Vulture
(b) Coyote
(c) Prairie chicken
(d) Grass

17. In an ecosystem, the …A… is always greater than the
…a…
(a) A-biomass of secondary consumers; B-biomass of primary producers
(b) A-number of primary producers; B-number of primary consumers
(c) A-energy used by primary consumers; B-energy used by primary producers
(d) A-energy used by primary consumers; B-energy used by secondary consumers

18. All of the following are true about energy in an ecosystem except
(a) most of the energy transferred from the sun to organisms in ecosystems is lost as heat
(b) energy can be recycled within ecosystems as one organism consumes another .
(c) energy flows in one direction from producers to primary consumers to secondary consumers, then to tertiary consumers
(d) heat generated by organisms represents a loss of energy in the ecosystem

19. The diagram below shows the biomagnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain. Choose the correct statement regarding this.
I. Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
II. High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of egg shell and their premature breaking.
III. River water may have a very low concentration of DDT, but the carnivorous fish in that river may contain high concentration of DDT, which is still suitable for consumption by human beings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test - Unit Test 6 2
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III

20. Idri-idri occurred in
(a) India
(b) Mauritius
(c) Fizi
(d) Madagascar

21. Algae, grasses and trees all are
(a) pyramids
(b) producers
(c) consumers
(d) decomposers

22. Halocarbons of halons are constituents of
(a) aerosols
(b) refrigerants
(c) fire extinguishers
(d) pesticides

23. Match the following columns.
NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test - Unit Test 6 3
Codes
A B C D    A B C D
(a) 2 5 13 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 5 2 3 (d) 3 2 15

24. Assertion Techniques called super ovulation and embryo transplantation are used for cattle improvement.
Reason Gonadotropin injection release more than one ova in high yielding cows. Early embryos are transplanted into surrogate mother for development.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

25. Antibiotics are drugs commonly used to cure diseases of
(a) fungi
(b) viruses
(c) protozoans
(d) bacteria

26. Vinegar is produced from alcohol with the help of
(a) Lactobacillus
(b) Acetobacter
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Rhizobium

27. Which of the following is used as a biological insecticide?
(a) Tiger beetle
(b) Catterpillar
(c) Silk moth
(d) Mazra poka

28. Find the incorrect statement.
(a) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat disease at molecular level by replacing defective genes with normal genes
(b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility
(c) Bt toxin is biodegradable insecticide obtained from Bacillus
(d) Totipotency is the potential ability of a cell to develop ‘ into a complete plant

29. Emasculation is
(a) removal of stamens
(b) removal of anthers
(c) killing of pollen grains
(d) All of these

30. Initial stage of drug addiction is
(a) tolerance
(b) habituation
(c) sleep
(d) dependence

31. Medium used in culturing hybridoma cells isV
(a) HAT
(b) HAP
(c)TAP
(d)TAC

32. Which type of rice is high in vitamin-A?V
(a) Super rice
(b) Golden rice
(c) Basmati rice
(d) Indica rice

33. All of the following statements’-concerning characteristics of predator-prey relationships are correct except
(a) a rise in the population of predators is followed by a decrease in the population of prey
(b) camouflage is an adaptation that protects prey
(c) the population of predators most often eliminates the population of prey „
(d) the production of large number of offsprings within very short periods of time ensures the survival of some prey, populations

34. A population is best defined in which of the following ways?
(a) A group of individuals that are capable of interbreeding
(b) All of the interacting members of one food web of a certain geographic area
(c) All of the biotic and abiotic elements of a certain general area
(d) A group of individuals of the same species that inhabit the same geographic area

35. Temperature, soil, water and sunlight are examples of factors.
(a) biotic
(b) trees
(c)heat
(d) abiotic

36. Bacteria, fungi and maggots act as what component of an ecosystem?
(a) Decomposers
(b) Secondary consumers
(c) Scavengers
(d) Primary consumers

37. Which biogeochemical cycle has bacteria living in a symbiotic relationship with the roots or legumes?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Phosphorus

38. Biosphere reserve project was started in India during
(a) 1984
(b) 1985
(c) 1986
(d) 1989

39. Which one is odd combination of habitat and particular animal?
(a) Sunderban — Bengal tiger
(b) Periyar — Elephant
(c) Rann of Kutch — Wild ass
(d) Dachigam National Park — Snow leopard

40. Agricultural use of DDT was banned in India during
(a) 1962
(b) 1972
(c) 1974
(d) 1985

41. If one organism is closely associated with and survives at the expense of another, a relationship exists that is
(a) parasitic relation
(b) commensalistic relation
(c) herbivore relation
(d) mutualistic relation

42 are known as the factors that limit the size of a population.
(a) Limiting factors
(b) Communities
(c) Ecologists
(d) Biospheres

43. Organisms that breakdown organic matter are
(a) autotrophs
(b) eithotrops
(c) decomposers
(d) producers

44. When a group of the same type of organisms lives in the same place, at the same time, it is known as a
(a) community
(b) population
(c) limiting factor
(d) niche

45. Assertion Alcohol contents of champagne wine is 12-16%.
Reason Alcohol contents of rum is 60-70%.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

46. Which term best describes the fungus that grows on trees?
(a) Producer
(b) Consumer
(c) Predator
(d) Decomposer

47. I. Radiation from nuclear waste is …A… at a very high rate.
II. At low doses, radiations causes …B… .
Complete the given statement by choosing appropriate option for A and B.
(a) A-lethal; B-cancer
(b) A-cancer; B-mutation
(c) A-mutation; B-down syndrome
(d) A-down syndrome; B-cancer

48. Which of the levels of organisation includes all the others?
(a) Population
(b) Organism
(c) Community
(d) Ecosystem

49. A population that is growing exponentially in the absence of limiting factors is best illustrated by a(n)
(a) Curve that terminates in a plateau phase
(b) S-shaped curve
(c) J-shaped curve
(d) None of the above

50. Kohler and Milstein developed biotechnology for the production of
(a) myelomas
(b) steroid conversion
(c) monoclonal antibodies
(d) immobilised enzymes

51. Psilocybin, mescaline and LSD can be kept under
(a) hallucinogenic drug
(b) opiate drug
(c) stimulants
(d) All of these

52. In bacteria, plasmid is a
(a) extrachromosomal material
(b) main DNA
(c) non-functional DNA
(d) repetitive gene

53. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the rate of respiration of a non-hibernating mammal living in cold climate?
NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test - Unit Test 6 4

54. Fill up the blank.
I. The products of ecosystem processes are called …A…
II. …B… are the major source of ecosystem services.
III. …C… and his colleagues tried to put price tags on nature’s life support survices which, came up to US …D… a year.
Choose the corrct option for A, B, C and D.
(a) A-Ecosystem services, B-Plants, C-Robert Brown, D-31 trillion
(b) A-Ecology services, B-Plants, C-Robert Constanza, D-32 trillion
(c) A-Ecosystem services, B-Forests, C-Robert Constanza, D-33 trillion
(d) A-Ecology services, B-Ponds, C-Robert Brown, D-34 trillion

55. Soil microorganisms mainly comprise

(a) fungi
(b) fungi and bacteria
(c) fungi, bacteria and actinomycetes
(d) None of the above

56. Bacteria utilised in gobar gas plants are
(a) methanogens
(b) nitrifying
(c) ammonifying
(d) denitrifying

57. Tobacco smoke is rich in
(a) tar
(b) CO
(c) polycyclic aromatic compounds
(d) All of the above

58. A protoplast without an active nucleus is known as
(a) cytoplast
(b) plasmoplast
(c) nucleoplast
(d) All of these

59. What is the largest ecosystem?
(a) Biosphere
(b) Deserts
(c) Mountains
(d) Prairies

60. By which process is carbon dioxide released from plants back into the atmosphere?
(a) Ammonification
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Respiration
(d) Phosphorylation

61. In travelling from a forest ecosystem to a grassland, one notes that the trees gradually give way to prairie grasses. The critical factor governing this shift is usually the
(a) availability of carbon dioxide
(b) length of the growing season
(c) annual mean temperature
(d) availability of water

62. Polonium-210 is pollutant emitted from
(a) laboratory radio-isotopes
(b) coolant water of reactors
(c) automobile exhausts
(d) thorium rich sands

63. Energy in an ecosystem is used for growth or lost as
(a) light
(b) death
(c) heat
(d) biomass

64. Energy flows through an ecosystem in which form?
(a) Water
(b) Food
(c) Sunlight
(d) Heat

65. An ecosystem is not organised by which of the following?
(a) Population
(b) Rainfall
(c) Community
(d) Niche

66. I. … A… is the ability of a cell to take up foreign DNA.
II. The cell is treated with specific concentration of a divalent cation such as …6… to increase pore size in cell wall.
III. In …C… method recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
The most appropriate option regarding A, B and C is

(a) A-Competency, B-calcium, C-gene gun method
(b) A-Transformation, B-sodium, C-microinjection method
(c) A-Competency, B-calcium, C-microinjection method
(d) A-Transformation, B-sodium, C-gene gun method

67. Diversity of habitats over the total geographical area is
(a) alpha diversity
(b) beta diversity
(c) gamma diversity
(d) omega diversity

68. Greenhouse effect was discovered by
(a) Fourier
(b)Tansley
(c) Clements
(d) Einstein

69. Atrophic level represents a
(a) pyramid
(b) chemical cycle
(c) consumer
(d) feeding level

70. Peculiar smell coming out of water is due to
(a) hydrogen sulphide
(b) dimethyl sulphide
(c) dimethyl mercury
(d) iron sulphide

71. Assertion Use of pesticides disturb the predator-prey population.
Reason Use of pesticides may give rise to resistant varieties of pests.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

72. Breeding place of Flamingo (Hansawar) in India is
(a) Chilka lake
(b) Sambar lake
(c) Rann of Kutch
(d) Ghana Vihar

73. Members of which of the following are the major primary producers in the marine ecosystem?
(a) Yeasts
(b) Diatoms
(c) Sporozoans
(d) Sponges

74. Permafrost is a characteristic of which biome?
(a) Temperate forest
(b) Tropical forest
(c) Desert
(d) Tundra

75. Assertion LSD and charas are hallucogenic drugs.
Reason These drugs alter thought, feelings and perceptions.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

76. Match the following columns.
NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test - Unit Test 6 5 Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 5
(b) 5 4 2 t
(c) 4 5 1 3
(d) 2 3 4 5

77. Cells obtained from cancerous tumours are known as
(a) hybridomas
(b) myelomas
(c) lymphocytes
(d) monoclonal cells

78. Which is a genetically engineered antiviral protein?
(a) Humulin
(b) Interferon
(c) Fumagillin
(d) Griseufulvin

79. The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free end of a polynucleotide is
(a) exonuclease
(b) kinase
(c) polymerase
(d) endonuclease

80. The table below gives the population (in thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four areas (l-IV), consisting of the number of habitats given within the brackets against each. Study the table and answer the question which follows.
NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test - Unit Test 6 6
Which area out of I to IV shows the maximum species diversity?
(a) II
(b) III
(c) IV
(d) I

81. The impacts of loss of biodiversity may lead to
I. lowered resistance to environmental perturbation.
II. decrease in plant production.
III. increased variability in ecosystem processes like water use, pest/disease cycle, plants productivity.
IV. Increase in plant production
Choose the correct option.

(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III

82. Single cell proteins are
(a) microorganisms
(b) enzymes
(c) antibiotics
(d) toxins

83. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through the use of
(a) manures
(b) resistant varieties
(c) biofertilisers
(d) All of these

84. Assertion Fatty liver syndrome occurs in alcoholism. Reason Alcoholic have a rate of carcinoma ten times higher than that expected in the general population.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

85. All the interactions, in which an organism takes part make up its
(a) niche
(b) community
(c) population
(d) ecosystem

86. Which of the following is an example of a producer?
(a) Human
(b) Grass
(c) Preservation
(d) Dog

87. Consider the following statements.
I. In microinjection method foreign DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell or plant cell by using micro needles or micro pipettes.
II. Microinjection method is used in oocytes, eggs and embryo.
III. Electroporation is the formation of temporary pores in the plasma membrane of host cell by using lysozyme-or calcium chloride.
IV. In chemical mediated gene transfer method, certain chemicals such as Ca help foreign DNA to enter the host cell.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV

88. Which of the following would be a density dependent factor limiting population growth?
(a) Number of predators in the environment
(b) Wide fluctuations in temperature of the environment
(c) Accumulation of toxins in the environment
(d) The presence of disease

89. Mycorrhizae that grow on the roots of plants are representatives of what type of symbiotic relationship listed below?
(a) Mutualism
(b) Parasitism
(c) Interspecific competition
(d) Intraspecific competition

90. The king of narcotics is
(a) opium
(b) LSD
(c) alcohol
(d) cocaine

91. Charas is a product of
(a) Cannabis indica
(b) Cannabis sativa
(c) Cannabis capsarica
(d) None of these

Direction (Q. NOS. 92-93) In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

92. Assertion Mass selection is useful in self-pollinating plants.
Reason Self-pollinated plants are homozygous, which retain the selected traits in the progeny.

93. Assertion Recombinant DNA can be chimeric DNA.
Reason The chimeric DNA is that recombinant DNA, which is formed of two or more sources.

Answers :
NEET Biology Chapter Wise Mock Test - Unit Test 6 7

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